The Indian Constitution, a monumental document that lays the foundation of India’s democratic governance, is a crucial subject for aspirants of the UPSC CSE Exam. Among its many facets, understanding the historical background of the Indian Constitution is paramount. This knowledge not only helps in building a solid conceptual base but also equips candidates with the necessary insights to answer a variety of questions related to the evolution of India’s constitutional framework.
In this blog post, we present 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) that focus on the historical development of the Indian Constitution, including significant events, acts, and movements that shaped it. Whether you are at the beginning of your UPSC preparation or looking to reinforce your knowledge, these MCQs will help you evaluate your understanding, sharpen your exam strategy, and boost your confidence in tackling this critical area of the syllabus.
Historical Background of the Indian Constitution MCQs and Answers
1. Regarding the formation of the Constituent Assembly, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The idea of a Constituent Assembly was first formally proposed by the Indian National Congress in 1935
(b) The Constituent Assembly was established under the provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
(c) Initially, the Constituent Assembly was a sovereign body, empowered to frame the Constitution independently.
(d) The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 played a significant role in the formation of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: While M.N. Roy proposed the idea earlier, it’s crucial to distinguish between the initial proposal and the formalization of the process. The Cabinet Mission Plan was instrumental in setting the framework for the Assembly. It was not a sovereign body initially but gained sovereignty after India’s independence. The Indian Independence Act facilitated the creation of two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, and thus, indirectly impacted the composition and eventually the sovereignty of the Constituent Assembly, but it was the Cabinet Mission plan that outlined the structure and process.
2. The impact of the Partition of India on the Constituent Assembly was multifaceted. Which of the following best reflects this impact?
(a) It led to the postponement of the Constituent Assembly’s first meeting due to widespread communal violence.
(b) It necessitated a fresh election for the Constituent Assembly, reflecting the altered demographics of the nation.
(c) It resulted in a reduction in the membership of the Constituent Assembly and a shift in its focus to address the challenges of a newly independent nation.
(d) It caused the dissolution of the Constituent Assembly, forcing the newly formed nations of India and Pakistan to create their own constituent bodies.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Partition directly led to a reduction in members as some areas went to Pakistan. It also changed the Assembly’s priorities to deal with the issues of a newly independent nation like integration of princely states, rehabilitation of refugees, and framing a constitution reflecting the aspirations of free India. While violence was a consequence, it didn’t postpone the first meeting. There wasn’t a fresh election. The existing body continued with reduced membership. The assembly was not dissolved, it continued to function and draft the constitution.
3. Consider the following statements regarding the drafting of the Indian Constitution:
- The first draft of the Constitution was prepared by the Drafting Committee headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
- The drafting process involved extensive debates and discussions on various aspects of governance, including language, secularism, and federalism.
- The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on November 26, 1949, and it came into force on January 26, 1950.
- The handwritten copies of the Constitution were calligraphed by Prem Behari Narain Raizada.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The first draft was prepared by B.N. Rau. Ambedkar chaired the drafting committee, which worked on the draft provided by Rau and others making significant changes. The other three statements are accurate reflections of the drafting process and subsequent events.
4. The sources of the Indian Constitution reflect a blend of influences from various countries. Which of the following pairings is/are correctly matched?
- Fundamental Rights: USA
- Directive Principles of State Policy: UK
- Parliamentary System: Ireland
- Federal Structure: Government of India Act, 1935
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are indeed from the USA, and the Federal Structure has a substantial basis in the 1935 Act. The UK provided the inspiration for Parliamentary System and single citizenship, while the Directive Principles were influenced by the Irish Constitution.
5. The ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine of the Indian Constitution, as evolved by the Supreme Court, implies:
(a) Certain fundamental rights cannot be amended under any circumstances.
(b) Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution is limited by certain fundamental features that cannot be altered.
(c) The judiciary has the final authority to determine the validity of all constitutional amendments.
(d) The Constitution can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament on matters of national importance.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Basic Structure doctrine, established in the Kesavananda Bharati case, limits the amending power of Parliament. It holds that while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its basic features or structure. This doctrine safeguards the fundamental philosophy and character of the Constitution.
6. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
- The Preamble is based on the Objective Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru.
- The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were part of the original Preamble.
- The Preamble is justiciable, meaning it can be enforced in a court of law.
- The Preamble declares India to be a “Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.”
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Preamble is indeed based on the Objective Resolution and correctly describes India’s status. However, “Socialist” and “Secular” were added later by the 42nd Amendment. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution but is not justiciable, meaning it cannot be directly enforced by a court.
7. Consider the following statements about Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:
- Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be restricted under any circumstances.
- Article 32, the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the Constitution, guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
- The Right to Property remains a Fundamental Right under Article 31.
- Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a National Emergency, except for Articles 20 and 21.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are not absolute; they can be restricted under reasonable grounds. The Right to Property was moved to Article 300A. Article 32 is indeed crucial for the enforcement of these rights, and they can be suspended during a national emergency, with the exception of Articles 20 and 21.
8. Which of the following best describes the nature of the Indian federation?
(a) A classic federation with a clear division of powers and independent states.
(b) A unitary system with centralized power and limited autonomy for states.
(c) A quasi-federal system with a strong Centre and some features of a federation.
(d) A confederation of states with a weak central government.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: India is described as a “Union of States.” While it has a division of powers, the Centre holds more power, especially during emergencies. This makes it a quasi-federal system, leaning towards a strong Centre.
9. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in the Indian Constitution are:
(a) Justiciable and enforceable in a court of law.
(b) Non-justiciable and serve as guidelines for state policy.
(c) Enforceable only by the President of India.
(d) Subject to judicial review but not enforceable.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: DPSPs are not legally enforceable like Fundamental Rights. They are moral and political guidelines for the state to strive towards while formulating policies and laws.
10. Which of the following statements about the amendment process of the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
- The Constitution can be amended only by a referendum of the people.
- Article 368 outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution.
- The ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine limits Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
- All amendments require ratification by a majority of states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Amendments are done by Parliament, not by referendum. While some amendments require state ratification, not all do. Article 368 does describe the process, and the Basic Structure doctrine limits the extent of amendments.
11. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched regarding the sources of the Indian Constitution?
- Parliamentary System: UK
- Fundamental Rights: USA
- Directive Principles of State Policy: Ireland
- Concurrent List: Australia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All the pairs are correctly matched. The Indian Constitution has borrowed features from various countries, adapting them to the Indian context.
12. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in the Indian Constitution implies:
(a) The power of the judiciary to review the actions of the executive.
(b) The power of the judiciary to review the constitutionality of legislative enactments.
(c) The power of the judiciary to adjudicate disputes between the Centre and the States.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Judicial review encompasses all the mentioned aspects, making it a powerful tool for the judiciary to uphold the Constitution and maintain checks and balances.
13. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Written Constitution
(b) Federal System
(c) Dual Citizenship
(d) Independent Judiciary
Answer: (c)
Explanation: India has single citizenship, unlike some other federal systems like the USA. The other options are indeed features of the Indian Constitution.
14. The ’42nd Amendment’ to the Indian Constitution is often referred to as a “Mini Constitution” because:
(a) It introduced significant changes to many parts of the Constitution.
(b) It codified the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine.
(c) It added the Fundamental Duties to the Constitution.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment made widespread changes and added Fundamental Duties, hence the “Mini Constitution” moniker. However, it did not codify the Basic Structure doctrine; that was a result of judicial interpretation.
15. Which of the following statements about the National Flag of India is/are correct?
- The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on July 22, 1947.
- The three colors in the flag represent courage, sacrifice, and peace and prosperity.
- The Ashoka Chakra in the center has 24 spokes, symbolizing the 24 hours in a day.
- The National Flag is made of khadi, a hand-spun cloth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The flag was adopted on July 22, 1947, the Ashoka Chakra has 24 spokes, and it is traditionally made of khadi. However, the colors represent saffron for courage and sacrifice, white for peace and truth, and green for faith, fertility, and prosperity.
16. Which of the following statements about the composition of the Constituent Assembly is/are correct?
- The Constituent Assembly included representatives from princely states.
- Members of the Constituent Assembly were directly elected by the people.
- The representation of states in the Assembly was based on their population.
- The Constituent Assembly also included members from the Muslim League.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Princely states were represented through nominations, and the representation was indeed population-based. The Muslim League initially participated but later boycotted and eventually demanded a separate constituent assembly for Pakistan. Members were not directly elected; they were chosen by provincial legislatures.
17. The concept of ‘Federalism’ in the Indian Constitution signifies:
(a) A clear separation of powers between the Centre and the States.
(b) A dual polity with distinct levels of government.
(c) A division of powers between the Centre and the States, but with a stronger Centre.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Indian federalism incorporates all the features listed. There’s a division of powers, a dual polity, and a strong Centre, making it a unique blend.
18. Which of the following statements about the ‘Emergency Provisions’ in the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
- The President can declare a National Emergency on grounds of threat to the security of India.
- During a National Emergency, Fundamental Rights can be suspended, except for Articles 20 and 21.
- The proclamation of a National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament.
- Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All the statements are accurate. The President can declare a National Emergency, rights (except 20 and 21) can be suspended, parliamentary approval is needed, and a financial emergency has never been imposed.
19. Which of the following best describes the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights are superior to Directive Principles and cannot be amended to implement them.
(b) Directive Principles are superior to Fundamental Rights and can be used to restrict them.
(c) Both are complementary and aim to achieve social justice, but in case of conflict, Fundamental Rights generally prevail.
(d) Both are independent of each other and have no bearing on each other.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: They are intended to work together. However, in a conflict, Fundamental Rights are generally given precedence due to their justiciable nature.
20. The ’44th Amendment’ to the Indian Constitution is significant because it:
(a) Added the word “Socialist” to the Preamble.
(b) Restored some of the powers of the judiciary that were curtailed by the 42nd Amendment.
(c) Made Fundamental Rights absolute and non-amendable.
(d) Introduced the system of Panchayati Raj.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 44th Amendment undid some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment, particularly those affecting the balance of power between the judiciary and the legislature. It did not add “Socialist” (that was the 42nd), nor did it make FRs absolute. Panchayati Raj was introduced by the 73rd Amendment.
21. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Written Constitution
(b) Parliamentary System of Government
(c) Federal System with a Strong Centre
(d) Presidential System of Government
Answer: (d)
Explanation: India has a Parliamentary system, not a Presidential one. The President is the head of state, but the real executive power lies with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
22. The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ in the Indian Constitution refers to:
(a) The President’s power to appoint and dismiss certain officials at his/her discretion.
(b) The power of the Parliament to impeach the President.
(c) The power of the Supreme Court to review the actions of the executive.
(d) The discretionary powers of the Governor of a State.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Doctrine of Pleasure essentially means that certain officials (like Governors) hold office during the pleasure of the President.
23. Which of the following best describes the Indian Constitution?
(a) Rigid and unamendable
(b) Flexible and easily amendable
(c) A blend of rigidity and flexibility
(d) Neither rigid nor flexible
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution can be amended, but the process is not as easy as in some countries. Certain amendments require state ratification, and the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine adds another layer of complexity, making it a blend of rigidity and flexibility.
24. The concept of ‘Constitutional Morality’ implies:
(a) Adherence to the written text of the Constitution.
(b) Respect for the values and principles underlying the Constitution, even beyond its literal text.
(c) Blind obedience to the government of the day.
(d) The power of the judiciary to interpret the Constitution.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Constitutional morality goes beyond simply following the rules. It emphasizes internalizing and upholding the spirit and values enshrined in the Constitution.
25. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘Amendment Procedure’?
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 368
(c) Article 370
(d) Article 377
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 368 specifically outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution. The other articles mentioned deal with different aspects (356: President’s Rule, 370: Special status of J&K (now abrogated), 377: Unnatural offences).
26. Which of the following statements about the ‘National Emergency’ under Article 352 is/are correct?
- A National Emergency can be declared on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
- The proclamation of a National Emergency requires ratification by both Houses of Parliament within one month.
- During a National Emergency, the President can suspend Fundamental Rights, including Articles 19, but excluding Articles 20 and 21.
- A National Emergency has been proclaimed three times in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The grounds for National Emergency are correctly stated, as is the suspension of rights (except 20 & 21). India has indeed seen three National Emergencies. However, the ratification period is two months, not one.
27. Which of the following statements about the ‘President’s Rule’ under Article 356 is/are correct?
- President’s Rule can be imposed in a state if the Governor reports that the state’s administration cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
- The proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months.
- Once approved, President’s Rule can continue for a maximum period of one year.
- During President’s Rule, the President administers the state through the Governor.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Governor’s report is the basis, parliamentary approval is needed within two months, and the President administers through the Governor. However, the initial proclamation lasts for six months and can be extended up to a maximum of three years, not one.
28. Which of the following statements about the ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ (DPSPs) is/are correct?
- DPSPs are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by a court of law.
- DPSPs aim to establish social and economic democracy.
- DPSPs are inspired by the Irish Constitution.
- Article 44 of the Indian Constitution calls for a Uniform Civil Code.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: DPSPs are not justiciable. The other statements are correct.
29. Which of the following statements about the ‘Fundamental Duties’ in the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
- Fundamental Duties were part of the original Constitution.
- Fundamental Duties are inspired by the Constitution of the USSR.
- Fundamental Duties are enforceable by a court of law.
- Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Fundamental Duties were not in the original constitution. They are not enforceable in court. The other two statements are correct.
30. Which of the following statements about the ‘Governor’ of a State is/are correct?
- The Governor is appointed by the President.
- The Governor is the head of the state.
- The Governor is responsible for the maintenance of law and order in the state.
- The Governor has discretionary powers in certain matters.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Governor is appointed by the President and is the constitutional head, and has some discretionary powers. However, maintenance of law and order is primarily the responsibility of the state government, although the Governor can play a role in certain situations.
31. The ‘Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA)’ of 2019:
(a) Grants citizenship to religious minorities who have fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan.
(b) Makes changes to the process of acquiring Indian citizenship for illegal immigrants.
(c) Has been criticized for being discriminatory on religious grounds.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All the statements accurately reflect the CAA and the controversy surrounding it.
32. The ‘One Nation, One Election’ proposal refers to:
(a) Simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha and all State Assemblies.
(b) Holding all elections in India on a single day.
(c) A single electoral roll for the entire country.
(d) A common election symbol for all political parties.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The proposal focuses on synchronizing elections for the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies to reduce the frequency of elections.
33. The concept of a ‘Living Constitution’ implies:
(a) The Constitution is constantly evolving and adapting to changing societal needs.
(b) The Constitution should be interpreted literally and strictly according to its original intent.
(c) The Constitution is a static document that cannot be amended.
(d) The Constitution should be rewritten every few years to reflect current realities.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: A “living constitution” acknowledges that the meaning and application of the Constitution can evolve over time through judicial interpretation and amendments to address new challenges and societal values.
34. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) A written and codified Constitution
(b) A federal system with a strong Centre
(c) A Presidential system of government
(d) A Parliamentary system of government
Answer: (c)
Explanation: India follows a Parliamentary system where the executive is responsible to the legislature, not a Presidential system.
35. The ‘Kesavananda Bharati Case’ is a landmark case related to:
(a) The scope of Fundamental Rights.
(b) The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
(c) The relationship between the Centre and the States.
(d) The appointment of judges to the Supreme Court.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: This case established the “Basic Structure” doctrine, limiting Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
36. Which of the following statements about the ‘Judicial Review’ power of the Supreme Court is/are correct?
- The Supreme Court can review the constitutionality of laws passed by Parliament and State legislatures.
- The Supreme Court can review the actions of the executive branch.
- Judicial Review is explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
- Judicial Review is considered a basic feature of the Indian Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The court can review laws and executive actions, and it is a basic feature. However, while the power is implied, it’s not explicitly stated in a single article; it’s derived from several articles, particularly Article 13.
37. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
(c) Right to Property
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Right to Property was originally a fundamental right but was later moved to Article 300A as a legal right.
38. The ‘Preamble’ to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a:
(a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
(b) Sovereign, Democratic, Secular, Socialist, Republic
(c) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(d) Democratic, Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Republic
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct order of the terms is Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
39. Which of the following best describes the Indian Constitution?
(a) Rigid
(b) Flexible
(c) Partly rigid and partly flexible
(d) Neither rigid nor flexible
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution can be amended, but the process is not overly easy, especially for certain types of amendments. This makes it partly rigid and partly flexible.
40. The concept of ‘Single Citizenship’ in India means:
(a) Citizens can hold citizenship of both the Union and the States.
(b) Citizens can hold citizenship of only one country, i.e., India.
(c) Citizens can hold citizenship of multiple countries.
(d) Citizens can choose to be citizens of any state within India.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: India has a single citizenship; citizens are citizens of India only and not of any particular state.
41. The ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ are enshrined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV
(d) Part V
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Part IV of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy.
42. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression’?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 25
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 19 guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression, subject to reasonable restrictions.
43. The ‘National Anthem’ of India, “Jana Gana Mana,” was originally written by:
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Subramania Bharati
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore wrote both the Indian National Anthem and the Bangladeshi National Anthem.
44. Which of the following amendments added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 52nd Amendment
(d) 73rd Amendment
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment, often called the “Mini Constitution,” made several significant changes, including adding these two words to the Preamble.
45. The ‘Anti-Defection Law’ is related to which amendment of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 52nd Amendment
(c) 73rd Amendment
(d) 74th Amendment
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 52nd Amendment introduced the Anti-Defection Law to prevent elected members from switching parties.
46. Which of the following bodies plays a crucial role in conducting free and fair elections in India?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Election Commission of India
(c) The Supreme Court of India
(d) The Prime Minister of India
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Election Commission is an independent constitutional body responsible for conducting and supervising all elections to Parliament, State legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
47. The ‘Right to Education’ is a fundamental right under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21A
(d) Article 25
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 21A guarantees free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years.
48. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the ‘Union List,’ ‘State List,’ and ‘Concurrent List’ in the Indian Constitution?
(a) They define the distribution of legislative powers between the Union, the States, and both.
(b) They define the distribution of executive powers between the Union and the States.
(c) They define the distribution of financial powers between the Union and the States.
(d) They define the composition of the Parliament and State legislatures.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: These lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution divide legislative subjects between the Union, the States, and those on which both can legislate.
49. The ‘Governor’ of a state in India is:
(a) Elected by the people of the state.
(b) Appointed by the President of India.
(c) Elected by the State Legislative Assembly.
(d) A member of the State Legislative Council.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Governor is appointed by the President and serves as the head of the state at the state level.
50. Which of the following is NOT a Union Territory of India?
(a) Delhi
(b) Puducherry
(c) Goa
(d) Lakshadweep
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Goa is a state, while the others are Union Territories.
51. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a ‘National Emergency’?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 370
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 352 deals with the proclamation of a National Emergency. Article 356 deals with President’s Rule in states, Article 360 with Financial Emergency, and Article 370 (now abrogated) with the special status of Jammu and Kashmir.
52. The ‘Midday Meal Scheme’ is related to which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Article 45 (Early childhood care and education)
(b) Article 47 (Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health)
(c) Article 48A (Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife)
(d) Article 51 (Promotion of international peace and security)
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Midday Meal Scheme aims to improve the nutritional intake of children, aligning with the directive under Article 47.
53. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian federal system?
(a) Dual Polity
(b) Division of Powers
(c) Independent Judiciary
(d) Dual Citizenship
Answer: (d)
Explanation: India has single citizenship, not dual citizenship. The other options are indeed features of the Indian federal system.
54. The ‘Rajya Sabha’ in the Indian Parliament is:
(a) Directly elected by the people.
(b) Composed of members nominated by the President and elected by the State Legislative Assemblies.
(c) The lower house of the Parliament.
(d) A temporary body that can be dissolved by the President.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is composed of members elected by the State Legislative Assemblies and some members nominated by the President. It is the upper house and a permanent body.
55. Which of the following is a ‘Concurrent Subject’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Defense
(b) Foreign Affairs
(c) Education
(d) Railways
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Education is a subject on which both the Parliament and State legislatures can make laws. The other options are generally Union subjects.
56. The ‘Panchayati Raj’ system is related to which amendment of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 73rd Amendment
(b) 74th Amendment
(c) 86th Amendment
(d) 91st Amendment
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment introduced Panchayati Raj institutions for local self-governance in rural areas. The 74th Amendment deals with urban local bodies.
57. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Fundamental Duty’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions.
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
(c) To pay taxes promptly.
(d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: While paying taxes is a civic responsibility, it’s not explicitly listed as a Fundamental Duty. The others are indeed Fundamental Duties.
58. The ‘Prime Minister’ of India is:
(a) Elected directly by the people.
(b) Appointed by the President.
(c) Elected by the Lok Sabha.
(d) Nominated by the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The President appoints the Prime Minister, who is usually the leader of the party with a majority in the Lok Sabha.
59. Which of the following is considered the ‘Guardian of the Indian Constitution’?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Supreme Court of India
(d) The Prime Minister of India
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Supreme Court, through its power of judicial review, acts as the guardian of the Constitution, ensuring that laws and executive actions are in accordance with it.
60. The ‘Lok Sabha’ in the Indian Parliament is:
(a) The upper house of the Parliament.
(b) Directly elected by the people.
(c) A permanent body that cannot be dissolved.
(d) Composed of members nominated by the President.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Lok Sabha is the lower house and is directly elected by the people. It is not a permanent body and can be dissolved.
61. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘Equality before Law’?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 25
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
62. The ‘Vice-President’ of India is:
(a) Directly elected by the people.
(b) Elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.
(c) Appointed by the President.
(d) A member of the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.
63. Which of the following bodies is responsible for recommending the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States?
(a) The Finance Commission
(b) The Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog)
(c) The Reserve Bank of India
(d) The Ministry of Finance
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution of tax revenue between the Union and the States.
64. The ‘Attorney General’ of India is:
(a) The highest law officer of the Government of India.
(b) A judge of the Supreme Court.
(c) A member of the Parliament.
(d) The Chief Justice of India.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Attorney General is the government’s chief legal advisor and represents the Union government in legal matters.
65. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Union Subject’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Defense
(b) Foreign Affairs
(c) Public Order
(d) Railways
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Public Order is generally a State subject, although the Union can intervene in certain circumstances. The others are typically Union subjects.
66. The ‘Comptroller and Auditor General’ (CAG) of India is responsible for:
(a) Maintaining the accounts of the Union and the States.
(b) Auditing the accounts of the Union and the States.
(c) Preparing the budget for the Union government.
(d) Controlling the expenditure of the Union government.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The CAG audits the accounts of the Union and the States to ensure financial accountability and transparency.
67. Which of the following is a ‘State Subject’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Defense
(b) Police
(c) Foreign Affairs
(d) Currency
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Police is generally a State subject. The others are Union subjects.
68. The ‘Planning Commission’ of India was replaced by which body in 2015?
(a) The Finance Commission
(b) The NITI Aayog
(c) The National Development Council
(d) The Inter-State Council
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog.
69. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Fundamental Duty’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) To safeguard public property.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India.
(d) To vote in elections.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: While voting is an important civic responsibility, it’s not explicitly a Fundamental Duty. The others are indeed Fundamental Duties.
70. The ‘President’ of India is:
(a) The head of the government.
(b) The head of the state.
(c) The commander-in-chief of the armed forces.
(d) Both (b) and (c).
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The President is the head of state and the commander-in-chief of the armed forces. However, the real executive power lies with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
71. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘Abolition of Untouchability’?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes “untouchability” and its practice in any form.
72. The ‘National Human Rights Commission’ (NHRC) of India is:
(a) A statutory body.
(b) A constitutional body.
(c) An executive body.
(d) A quasi-judicial body.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The NHRC is a statutory body, meaning it was established by an Act of Parliament.
Read more: What is Statutory Body?
73. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Constitutional Body’ in India?
(a) The Election Commission
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) The National Human Rights Commission
(d) The Finance Commission
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The NHRC is a statutory body, while the others are established by the Constitution itself.
74. The ‘Supreme Court’ of India consists of:
(a) The Chief Justice of India and other judges.
(b) Only the Chief Justice of India.
(c) Judges appointed by the President.
(d) Judges elected by the Parliament.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Supreme Court comprises the Chief Justice and other judges appointed by the President.
75. Which of the following is NOT a function of the ‘Parliament’ of India?
(a) Making laws
(b) Controlling the executive
(c) Administering justice
(d) Approving the budget
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Administering justice is the function of the judiciary, not the Parliament.
76. The ‘President’ of India is elected by:
(a) Directly by the people.
(b) An electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
(c) Only members of the Lok Sabha.
(d) Only members of the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The President is elected by an electoral college as described in option (b).
77. Which of the following is a ‘Union Territory’ of India?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Goa
(d) Kerala
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a Union Territory. The others are states.
78. The ‘NITI Aayog’ is:
(a) A statutory body.
(b) A constitutional body.
(c) An executive body.
(d) A quasi-judicial body.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: NITI Aayog is an executive body, meaning it was created by an executive order of the government.
79. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Fundamental Right’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Employment
Answer: (d)
Explanation: While the Constitution strives towards providing employment opportunities, it is not a Fundamental Right. The others are indeed Fundamental Rights.
80. The ‘Chief Justice’ of the Supreme Court of India is:
(a) Elected by the people.
(b) Appointed by the President.
(c) Elected by the Parliament.
(d) The senior-most judge of the Supreme Court.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The President appoints the Chief Justice of India. While seniority is often a factor, it is not the sole criterion.
81. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 25
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
82. The ‘Election Commission’ of India is:
(a) A statutory body.
(b) A constitutional body.
(c) An executive body.
(d) A quasi-judicial body.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Election Commission is an independent constitutional body.
83. Which of the following is NOT a ‘State’ of India?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Manipur
(c) Ladakh
(d) Nagaland
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Ladakh is a Union Territory, while the others are states.
84. The ‘Prime Minister’ of India is:
(a) The head of the state.
(b) The head of the government.
(c) The commander-in-chief of the armed forces.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Prime Minister is the head of the government, while the President is the head of state and commander-in-chief.
85. Which of the following is a ‘Concurrent Subject’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Defense
(b) Forests
(c) Foreign Affairs
(d) Banking
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Forests is a Concurrent Subject. The others are generally Union subjects.
86. The ‘Finance Commission’ of India is:
(a) A statutory body.
(b) A constitutional body.
(c) An executive body.
(d) A quasi-judicial body.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body.
87. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Union Territory’ of India?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
(c) Puducherry
(d) Sikkim
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Sikkim is a state, not a Union Territory.
88. The ‘Comptroller and Auditor General’ (CAG) of India is appointed by:
(a) The Prime Minister.
(b) The President.
(c) The Parliament.
(d) The Chief Justice of India.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The CAG is appointed by the President.
89. Which of the following is a ‘State Subject’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Railways
(b) Agriculture
(c) Atomic Energy
(d) Census
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Agriculture is generally a State subject. The others are Union subjects.
90. The ‘National Development Council’ (NDC) is:
(a) A statutory body.
(b) A constitutional body.
(c) An executive body.
(d) A quasi-judicial body.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The NDC is an executive body.
91. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Fundamental Right’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Property (as it was originally)
(d) Right against Exploitation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Right to Property was a fundamental right but is no longer so. It is now a legal right.
92. The ‘President’ of India can be impeached by:
(a) The Supreme Court.
(b) The Parliament.
(c) The Prime Minister.
(d) The Chief Justice of India.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The President can be impeached by the Parliament for violation of the Constitution.
93. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘Organization of Village Panchayats’?
(a) Article 39
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 44
(d) Article 48
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 40 directs the State to take steps to organize village panchayats.
94. The ‘Speaker’ of the Lok Sabha is:
(a) Elected by the members of the Lok Sabha.
(b) Appointed by the President.
(c) A member of the Rajya Sabha.
(d) Nominated by the Prime Minister.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.
95. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Concurrent Subject’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Criminal Law
(b) Marriage and Divorce
(c) Banking
(d) Economic and Social Planning
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Banking is a Union subject. The others are Concurrent Subjects.
96. The ‘Inter-State Council’ is related to:
(a) Financial relations between the Union and the States.
(b) Coordination between the States.
(c) Resolution of disputes between the States.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Inter-State Council is concerned with all the matters mentioned.
97. Which of the following is NOT a ‘Union Territory’ of India?
(a) Delhi
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Puducherry
(d) Tripura
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Tripura is a state, not a Union Territory.
98. The ‘Attorney General’ of India is appointed by:
(a) The Prime Minister.
(b) The President.
(c) The Parliament.
(d) The Chief Justice of India.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Attorney General is appointed by the President.
99. Which of the following is a ‘State Subject’ under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Defense
(b) Agriculture
(c) Foreign Affairs
(d) Communications
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Agriculture is generally a State subject. The others are Union subjects.
100. The ‘National Commission for Women’ is:
(a) A statutory body.
(b) A constitutional body.
(c) An executive body.
(d) A quasi-judicial body.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The National Commission for Women is a statutory body.
The historical background of the Indian Constitution forms the backbone of understanding India’s political and legal framework. By mastering the key events, acts, and developments that led to the formation of our Constitution, UPSC CSE aspirants can enhance both their knowledge and exam performance. These 100 MCQs provide a focused way to assess your preparation, highlight areas for improvement, and ensure you are well-equipped to tackle this topic in the examination. Remember, consistent revision and practice are key to success in the UPSC journey. Keep refining your understanding, stay dedicated, and you’ll be one step closer to your goal of clearing the UPSC CSE exam. Good luck!