The making of the Indian Constitution is one of the most crucial topics for the UPSC Civil Services Examination (CSE). Understanding the historical context, debates, and key provisions is essential for both the Prelims and Mains. To help aspirants grasp this topic effectively, we have compiled 100 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) that cover every aspect of the Constituent Assembly, constitutional debates, key amendments, and influences from other countries.
These questions are designed to test your knowledge, enhance retention, and prepare you for the UPSC Prelims and Mains. Each question comes with a detailed explanation, ensuring conceptual clarity. Whether you’re revising or just starting with this topic, this MCQ set will serve as a valuable resource in your UPSC preparation.
Making of the Constitution MCQ and Answers
1. Regarding the length and structure of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution in the world, currently comprising over 450 articles and 12 schedules.
(b) The division of the Constitution into Parts is primarily for administrative convenience and does not reflect a hierarchical importance of the subjects covered.
(c) The number of schedules in the Indian Constitution has remained static since its adoption, reflecting the unchanging nature of its core principles.
(d) The sheer length of the Indian Constitution has been widely criticized for making it cumbersome and difficult to understand for the average citizen.
Answer: (a) and (b) are correct.
Explanation: While the exact number of articles can vary slightly due to amendments, the Indian Constitution is indeed the longest written constitution. Statement (b) is also correct; the division into parts is for organization. Statement (c) is incorrect; the number of schedules has increased from 8 to 12. Statement (d) presents a common critique, but it’s not a universally accepted fact. While some argue it’s cumbersome, others see the detail as necessary for India’s diverse context.
2. Which of the following best describes the nature of the Indian Constitution’s amendability?
(a) It is entirely flexible, allowing for amendments through a simple majority in Parliament, reflecting the will of the people.
(b) It is entirely rigid, requiring a complex and lengthy process for any changes, ensuring the preservation of its original intent.
(c) It is a blend of flexibility and rigidity, with some provisions amendable by a simple majority and others requiring a special majority and ratification by states.
(d) It is quasi-federal, allowing the central government to unilaterally amend any part of the Constitution, reflecting its dominance.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is neither entirely flexible nor entirely rigid. Article 368 outlines different procedures for amendment, with some requiring a simple majority, some a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting), and some requiring ratification by a majority of states. This blend ensures that both popular will and federal balance are considered.
3. Which of the following statements about the Schedules of the Indian Constitution is/are incorrect?
(a) The First Schedule lists the states and union territories of India.
(b) The Tenth Schedule deals with anti-defection provisions.
(c) The Ninth Schedule lists the languages recognized by the Indian Constitution.
(d) The Eleventh Schedule deals with the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Ninth Schedule deals with certain acts and regulations that are placed beyond judicial review (though this has been debated and challenged). The languages recognized by the Indian Constitution are listed in the Eighth Schedule. The other statements are correct.
4. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution serves which of the following purposes?
(a) It acts as a justiciable instrument, enforceable in a court of law, guaranteeing the rights and freedoms mentioned therein.
(b) It declares the source of the Constitution and sets out its basic philosophy and objectives.
(c) It limits the scope of the Constitution, preventing it from being interpreted in a way that deviates from the original intent of the framers.
(d) It lists all the fundamental rights and duties of citizens, forming the core of the Constitution’s legal framework.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Preamble is a part of the Constitution and provides an introduction to it. It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic and lays down the objectives of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. However, it is not justiciable, meaning it cannot be enforced in a court of law. It guides the interpretation of the Constitution but doesn’t create enforceable rights.
5. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the nature of Indian federalism?
(a) India is a federation of states formed through a contractual agreement, with states retaining significant autonomy and the right to secede.
(b) India is a quasi-federal system with a strong Centre, where the division of powers can be altered unilaterally by the Parliament.
(c) India is a cooperative federation where the Centre and States collaborate and share powers, though the Centre retains a degree of supremacy.
(d) India is a unitary state with decentralized powers, where the Centre delegates specific responsibilities to the states for administrative efficiency.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: While India has a federal structure, it is not a classic federation like the USA. The Constitution does not arise from a compact between states, and states do not have the right to secede. The Centre has a stronger position, but it’s not a unitary system. “Cooperative federalism” best describes the Indian model, emphasizing collaboration while acknowledging the Centre’s greater influence.
6. The “unitary bias” in the Indian Constitution is manifested in which of the following provisions?
(a) The existence of a dual polity with separate governments at the Centre and State levels.
(b) The allocation of residuary powers to the Centre, allowing it to legislate on matters not explicitly mentioned in any list.
(c) The provision for single citizenship, ensuring a unified national identity.
(d) The independent and impartial functioning of the judiciary, ensuring the rule of law.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Residuary powers lying with the Centre is a key feature indicating unitary bias. It gives the Centre a potentially wide scope of legislative competence, particularly in emerging areas not foreseen by the Constitution makers. While single citizenship and an integrated judiciary also contribute to a strong Centre, they don’t directly demonstrate the “unitary bias” in the same way as residuary powers. Dual polity is a federal feature.
7. Consider the following statements regarding citizenship in India:
(a) India allows dual citizenship, enabling citizens to hold both Indian and foreign passports.
(b) The Constitution provides for a single unified citizenship, fostering a sense of national identity.
(c) Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) enjoy all the rights granted to citizens of India, except for the right to vote and hold public office.
(d) The Citizenship Act of 1955 outlines the various ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired or lost.
Answer: (b) and (d)
Explanation: India does not allow dual citizenship. Statement (b) correctly highlights the single citizenship provision. Statement (c) is incorrect; OCIs do not enjoy all the rights of citizens. Statement (d) is correct; the 1955 Act details citizenship-related provisions.
8. The integrated judicial system in India implies which of the following?
(a) The High Courts and the Supreme Court function as separate and independent entities, with no hierarchical relationship.
(b) The Supreme Court acts as the apex court, with appellate jurisdiction over all other courts in the country.
(c) The appointment of judges to the Supreme Court is entirely independent of the executive branch, ensuring judicial independence.
(d) The states have their own separate judicial systems, dealing with matters of local concern, independent of the central judiciary.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The integrated judiciary means a single hierarchical system with the Supreme Court at the top. While judicial independence is important, the statement (c) is not entirely accurate. The appointment of judges involves the executive. Statement (d) is incorrect; while states have High Courts, they are part of the integrated system and subject to the Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction.
9. With regard to the division of powers between the Union and the States, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The Union List contains subjects of national importance, such as defense and foreign affairs.
(b) The State List includes subjects of regional and local importance, like police and public health.
(c) The Concurrent List comprises subjects on which both the Centre and the States can legislate, but in case of conflict, the Union law prevails.
(d) The distribution of powers is rigid and unchangeable, ensuring a clear demarcation of responsibilities between the Centre and the States.
Answer: (a), (b), and (c)
Explanation: The lists generally follow the descriptions in (a), (b), and (c). Statement (d) is incorrect. While the division exists, it’s not absolutely rigid. The Centre can sometimes legislate on State List subjects under certain circumstances, and the lists themselves can be amended.
10. Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
(a) Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be restricted under any circumstances.
(b) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by the courts.
(c) All Fundamental Rights, including Articles 20 and 21, can be suspended during a National Emergency.
(d) The state is obligated to protect Fundamental Rights, but private individuals cannot be held accountable for their violation.
Answer: (b) is correct.
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are not absolute; they can be restricted under reasonable grounds. Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a National Emergency. While the state is the primary actor in protecting these rights, in certain situations, private individuals can also be held accountable (e.g., in cases of untouchability or bonded labor).
11. The 44th Amendment to the Indian Constitution significantly altered the status of which Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right to Property
(d) Right to Equality
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 44th Amendment moved the Right to Property from Part III (Fundamental Rights) to Article 300A, making it a legal right but no longer a fundamental right.
12. Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, often described as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution, provides for:
(a) The power of the President to declare a National Emergency.
(b) The right of citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. (c) The procedure for amending the Constitution.
(d) The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 32 guarantees the right to constitutional remedies, empowering citizens to approach the Supreme Court directly if their Fundamental Rights are violated. This makes the rights truly enforceable and is why it’s considered so crucial.
13. Which of the following statements about the suspension of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency is/are incorrect?
(a) All Fundamental Rights, except Articles 20 and 21, can be suspended during a National Emergency.
(b) The President has the power to suspend Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
(c) The suspension of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency automatically invalidates any law passed by the legislature that is inconsistent with those rights.
(d) Article 359 clarifies the extent and manner of the suspension of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
Answer: (c) is incorrect.
Explanation: During a National Emergency, while most Fundamental Rights can be suspended, Article 359 clarifies that laws passed during this period that are inconsistent with the suspended rights cannot be challenged in court. This effectively gives the state temporary immunity for actions that might otherwise violate those rights.
14. Consider the following statements regarding the justiciability of Fundamental Rights:
(a) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by a court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court is the ultimate guardian of Fundamental Rights, with the power to issue writs for their enforcement.
(c) The High Courts also have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights within their respective jurisdictions.
(d) A person whose Fundamental Rights are violated can directly approach the Supreme Court under Article 32, bypassing the lower courts.
Answer: (a), (b), (c), and (d) are all correct.
Explanation: All the statements accurately describe the justiciability of Fundamental Rights. They are enforceable through the courts, with both the High Courts and the Supreme Court having writ jurisdiction. Article 32 allows a direct approach to the Supreme Court in cases of Fundamental Rights violations.
15. Which of the following statements BEST describes the nature of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)?
(a) DPSPs are legally enforceable rights that citizens can claim against the state.
(b) DPSPs are moral guidelines for state action, promoting social and economic justice.
(c) DPSPs are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by the courts in the same way as Fundamental Rights.
(d) DPSPs are merely decorative provisions in the Constitution with no practical significance.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: DPSPs are not legally enforceable in the same way as Fundamental Rights. They are guidelines for the state to strive towards while formulating policies and laws. They represent the aspirations of the Constitution makers for a just and equitable society.
16. Which of the following Directive Principles reflects a Gandhian ideal?
(a) Securing for citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
(b) Organizing village panchayats as units of self-government.
(c) Protecting and improving the environment and safeguarding the forests and wildlife.
(d) Securing to citizens adequate means of livelihood.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Organizing village panchayats (Article 40) is a key Gandhian principle, emphasizing decentralized governance and empowering local communities. While some other DPSPs might align with certain aspects of Gandhian thought, Article 40 is the most direct reflection of his emphasis on village self-rule.
17. In case of a conflict between a Fundamental Right and a Directive Principle, which of the following is generally true?
(a) The Directive Principle prevails, as it reflects the broader goals of social justice.
(b) The Fundamental Right prevails, as it is legally enforceable and guarantees individual liberties.
(c) The conflict is resolved by a constitutional amendment, balancing both individual rights and social goals.
(d) The Supreme Court has the discretion to decide which provision prevails, depending on the specific circumstances.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights, being justiciable, generally prevail in conflicts with DPSPs. However, the judiciary has often interpreted Fundamental Rights in light of the DPSPs, trying to harmonize them as much as possible. Constitutional amendments have also been used to resolve certain conflicts, demonstrating the evolving relationship between the two.
18. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, which calls for a Uniform Civil Code (UCC), aims to:
(a) Ensure equality before the law for all citizens in matters of personal law.
(b) Promote a uniform system of criminal law throughout the country.
(c) Establish a common civil code for all citizens, regardless of religion, in matters like marriage, divorce, and inheritance.
(d) Abolish all personal laws based on religion and replace them with a secular civil code.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The UCC aims to create a single set of rules governing personal matters for all citizens, irrespective of their religious beliefs. This is distinct from criminal law, which is already largely uniform. While it may involve changes to existing personal laws, the goal is not necessarily to abolish all religion-based laws but to create a common code.
19. Consider the following statements about the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:
(a) Fundamental Rights are justiciable while Directive Principles are not.
(b) Directive Principles guide the state in making laws, while Fundamental Rights limit the state’s power.
(c) Both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles aim to establish social and economic justice.
(d) There is no inherent conflict between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles; they are complementary to each other.
Answer: (a), (b), (c), and (d) are all correct.
Explanation: All the statements accurately describe the relationship. They are distinct in their enforceability, purpose, and impact, but they ultimately work together towards the common goal of a just and equitable society. While conflicts can arise, the judiciary tries to harmonize them.
20. Which of the following BEST describes the legal status of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in the Indian Constitution?
(a) They are legally enforceable rights, and citizens can petition the courts for their implementation.
(b) They are moral and political guidelines for the state, but not legally enforceable in themselves.
(c) They are subordinate to Fundamental Rights and cannot be used to interpret or restrict them.
(d) They are justiciable, but only in cases where they are explicitly incorporated into legislation.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: DPSPs are not legally enforceable in the same way as Fundamental Rights. They serve as guiding principles for state policy, representing aspirations for social and economic justice. While courts cannot directly enforce them, they can be considered while interpreting laws and determining their constitutionality.
21. Which of the following pairs of Articles and their associated subject matter BEST reflects Gandhian principles enshrined in the DPSPs?
(a) Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code) and Article 48A (Protection and improvement of environment)
(b) Article 40 (Organization of village panchayats) and Article 47 (Prohibition of intoxicating drinks)
(c) Article 39B (Equitable distribution of resources) and Article 43 (Living wage for workers)
(d) Article 51 (International peace and security) and Article 48 (Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry)
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 40, concerning village panchayats, embodies Gandhi’s vision of decentralized self-governance. Article 47, advocating for the prohibition of intoxicating drinks, aligns with his social reform ideals. While other articles might resonate with some aspects of Gandhian thought, this pair most directly reflects his core principles.
22. While Fundamental Rights generally prevail over Directive Principles, the judiciary has adopted which approach to reconcile potential conflicts between them?
(a) Completely disregarding DPSPs in cases of conflict with Fundamental Rights.
(b) Interpreting Fundamental Rights in light of DPSPs to promote social justice objectives.
(c) Amending Fundamental Rights to bring them in line with DPSPs.
(d) Holding that DPSPs are superior to Fundamental Rights in matters of social and economic policy.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Although Fundamental Rights are legally enforceable, the judiciary has often adopted a harmonious construction, interpreting Fundamental Rights in a way that furthers the goals enshrined in DPSPs. This reflects an attempt to balance individual liberties with broader societal objectives.
23. The concept of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) as envisioned in Article 44 of the Constitution aims to:
(a) Standardize criminal law across the country, replacing diverse personal laws.
(b) Provide a common set of rules for all citizens in matters of marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption, regardless of religion.
(c) Abolish all religious personal laws and enforce a secular code based on western legal principles.
(d) Promote religious uniformity by enforcing Hindu personal law on all citizens.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The UCC aims to create a unified set of personal laws applicable to all citizens, irrespective of their religious affiliation. It seeks to address inequalities and inconsistencies arising from religion-based personal laws. It is distinct from criminal law and does not necessarily entail abolishing all personal laws but rather unifying them.
24. Consider the following statements regarding the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:
(a) Fundamental Rights are negative obligations on the state, while Directive Principles are positive obligations.
(b) Fundamental Rights protect individual liberties, while Directive Principles promote social and economic rights.
(c) Both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by the courts.
(d) Directive Principles act as a guide for legislative and executive action, shaping state policy.
Answer: (a), (b), and (d) are correct.
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are limitations on state power (negative obligations), preventing the state from infringing on individual liberties. DPSPs, on the other hand, guide the state towards achieving certain socio-economic goals (positive obligations). While both aim for a just society, only Fundamental Rights are directly justiciable. DPSPs are not directly enforced by courts, though they play a role in judicial interpretation and policymaking.
25. The 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution, which added Fundamental Duties, is significant because it:
(a) Made Fundamental Duties justiciable, similar to Fundamental Rights.
(b) Introduced a new Part IV-A to the Constitution, enshrining these duties.
(c) Abolished the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(d) Reduced the number of Fundamental Rights.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment, often referred to as the “mini-constitution,” added Part IV-A, which contains Article 51A, listing the Fundamental Duties. It did not make them justiciable, nor did it abolish DPSPs or reduce Fundamental Rights.
26. Which of the following statements BEST describes the legal status of Fundamental Duties?
(a) They are legally enforceable, and citizens can be penalized for failing to perform them.
(b) They are morally binding on citizens, but not legally enforceable by courts.
(c) They are justiciable, but only in cases where they are explicitly incorporated into legislation.
(d) They are merely aspirational and have no legal or moral significance.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Fundamental Duties are not directly enforceable by courts. While they are considered important moral and civic obligations, there is no direct legal penalty for not fulfilling them. However, their performance can be indirectly encouraged through other laws and policies.
27. The Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution are inspired by:
(a) The American Bill of Rights
(b) The French Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen
(c) The Constitution of the former USSR
(d) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR (now Russia). While other countries also have similar provisions, the direct inspiration for India’s Fundamental Duties came from the Soviet model.
28. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution?
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions.
(b) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
(c) To pay taxes promptly to the government.
(d) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: While paying taxes is a civic responsibility, it is not explicitly listed as a Fundamental Duty in Article 51A. The other options are indeed Fundamental Duties.
29. Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties:
(a) They were added to the Constitution after its initial adoption.
(b) They are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by courts.
(c) They are intended to complement Fundamental Rights and promote responsible citizenship.
(d) They are applicable only to citizens of India.
Answer: (a), (c), and (d) are correct.
Explanation: Fundamental Duties were added after the initial adoption of the Constitution (through the 42nd Amendment). They are not justiciable. They are intended to promote responsible behavior among citizens of India and complement the enjoyment of Fundamental Rights.
30. Which of the following BEST describes the nature of the Indian Parliamentary system?
(a) A presidential system where the President is both head of state and head of government.
(b) A quasi-presidential system combining features of both parliamentary and presidential systems.
(c) A parliamentary system based on the Westminster model, with a nominal head of state and a real executive.
(d) A system of direct democracy where citizens directly elect the head of government.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: India adopted the Westminster model, characterized by a parliamentary system with a nominal head of state (President) and a real executive (Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) responsible to the legislature.
31. The principle of “collective responsibility” in the Indian Parliamentary system implies that:
(a) Individual ministers are responsible to the President for their actions.
(b) The entire Council of Ministers is accountable to the Lok Sabha for its policies and decisions.
(c) The Prime Minister is solely responsible for the functioning of the government.
(d) The judiciary is responsible for overseeing the actions of the executive.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Collective responsibility means that the Council of Ministers functions as a team and is jointly answerable to the Lok Sabha. A vote of no-confidence against the government can lead to the resignation of the entire Council.
32. Which of the following statements about the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is/are correct?
(a) The Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people, while the Rajya Sabha represents the states.
(b) The Lok Sabha has greater financial powers than the Rajya Sabha.
(c) The Rajya Sabha can initiate money bills.
(d) The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people.
Answer: (a) and (b) are correct.
Explanation: The Lok Sabha is the directly elected house, while the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies. The Lok Sabha has more significant financial powers. The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate money bills. Rajya Sabha members are indirectly elected.
33. In the Indian Parliamentary system, the Prime Minister:
(a) Is elected directly by the people.
(b) Is appointed by the President.
(c) Is the leader of the party that wins a majority in the Lok Sabha.
(d) Is a member of the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: While the President formally appoints the Prime Minister, in practice, the President usually appoints the leader of the party that commands a majority in the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister is usually a member of the Lok Sabha, though there have been rare instances of Rajya Sabha members becoming PMs. The PM is not directly elected by the people.
34. The concept of “no fixed tenure” for the Lok Sabha signifies that:
(a) The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister before the completion of its five-year term.
(b) The members of the Lok Sabha can be recalled by the electorate at any time.
(c) The Lok Sabha can extend its term beyond five years during a National Emergency.
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the power to dissolve the House.
Answer: (a) and (c) are correct.
Explanation: The Lok Sabha generally has a five-year term, but it can be dissolved earlier by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The term can also be extended during a national emergency. The Speaker does not have the power to dissolve the house. There is no provision for recall of Lok Sabha members.
35. Which of the following statements accurately describes the types of emergencies provided for in the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Indian Constitution provides for two types of emergencies: National and State, with no provision for a Financial Emergency.
(b) The Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergencies: National, State, and Financial, each with distinct grounds for proclamation.
(c) The Indian Constitution provides for four types of emergencies: National, State, Financial, and Constitutional Emergency.
(d) The Indian Constitution provides for only one type of emergency: National Emergency, with the President having discretionary powers to impose it in any situation.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution explicitly mentions three types of emergencies: National (Article 352), State (Article 356), and Financial (Article 360). Each is triggered by specific circumstances outlined in the respective articles.
36. Which of the following situations can lead to the proclamation of a National Emergency under Article 352?
(a) Internal disturbances that threaten the unity and integrity of India.
(b) War or external aggression, or armed rebellion.
(c) Breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state.
(d) A threat to the financial stability of India.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 352 specifies “war,” “external aggression,” or “armed rebellion” as grounds for a National Emergency. “Internal disturbance” was previously a ground but was replaced by “armed rebellion” by the 44th Amendment. The other options relate to State and Financial Emergencies.
37. The proclamation of President’s Rule under Article 356 implies:
(a) The imposition of direct rule by the President in a state.
(b) The suspension of the state legislature and executive.
(c) The delegation of state powers to the Governor.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: President’s Rule involves all the options mentioned. The President, acting on the advice of the Governor or otherwise, can impose direct rule, suspend the state’s legislative assembly and executive branch, and administer the state through the Governor.
38. During a National Emergency, the Indian Constitution can be characterized as:
(a) Completely federal, with clear separation of powers between the Centre and the States.
(b) Completely unitary, with all powers concentrated in the hands of the Centre.
(c) Quasi-federal, with a strong bias towards the Centre.
(d) Confederal, with states having greater autonomy than usual.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: During a National Emergency, the Centre’s powers significantly increase, and the federal structure leans heavily towards a unitary system. The Centre can give directions to states on any matter, and even State laws can be overridden. It doesn’t become fully unitary, but the balance of power shifts drastically.
39. Which of the following statements about Financial Emergency (Article 360) is/are correct?
(a) A Financial Emergency has been proclaimed in India several times.
(b) The President can proclaim a Financial Emergency if there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India.
(c) During a Financial Emergency, the President can order a reduction in the salaries of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
(d) The proclamation of a Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months.
Answer: (b), (c), and (d) are correct.
Explanation: India has never had a Financial Emergency. The other statements accurately reflect the provisions related to Article 360. The President can take various financial measures, including salary reductions for judges, during a Financial Emergency. Parliamentary approval is mandatory within two months of its proclamation.
40. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution outlines the procedure for:
(a) Impeachment of the President.
(b) Amendment of the Constitution.
(c) Proclamation of Emergency.
(d) Appointment of Judges.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 368 specifically deals with the process of amending the Constitution, outlining the different procedures required for various types of amendments.
41. Which of the following statements regarding the amendment process is/are correct?
(a) All provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament.
(b) Some provisions, like those related to the federal structure, require ratification by a majority of state legislatures.
(c) The President must give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill, and cannot withhold it.
(d) Amendments to the Constitution can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
Answer: (b), (c), and (d) are correct.
Explanation: While some amendments can be done by a simple majority, many require a special majority (2/3rd present and voting) and some (related to federal structure) need state ratification. The President must give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Such bills can be introduced in either house.
42. The “Basic Structure Doctrine,” as propounded by the Supreme Court, implies that:
(a) The Parliament has unlimited power to amend any part of the Constitution.
(b) Certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered by amendments.
(c) The judiciary has the power to amend the Constitution.
(d) The states have the sole authority to amend the Constitution.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Basic Structure Doctrine, established in the Kesavananda Bharati case, limits Parliament’s amending power. It holds that certain basic features of the Constitution, like its federal character, secularism, democracy, etc., cannot be amended, even through Article 368.
43. Which of the following provisions require ratification by a majority of state legislatures for amendment?
(a) Fundamental Rights.
(b) The composition of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) The method of election of the President.
(d) Provisions related to the judiciary.
Answer: (b) and (c) are correct.
Explanation: Amendments related to the federal structure, including the composition of the Rajya Sabha and the election of the President (which impacts the federal balance), require ratification by a majority of state legislatures. Fundamental Rights and provisions related to the judiciary can be amended with a special majority, though the judiciary also acts as a check.
44. Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368:
(a) A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated only in the Lok Sabha.
(b) The Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament by a special majority (2/3rd present and voting).
(c) For certain amendments, ratification by a majority of the states is required.
(d) After being passed by Parliament and, where necessary, ratified by the states, the Bill must receive the President’s assent.
Answer: (b), (c), and (d) are correct.
Explanation: A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament. The other statements correctly describe the process: special majority in both houses, state ratification for certain amendments, and mandatory presidential assent.
45. The concept of an “integrated judiciary” in India implies:
(a) Separate and independent judicial systems at the Union and State levels.
(b) A single hierarchical system of courts with the Supreme Court at the apex.
(c) The existence of specialized tribunals for specific legal matters, independent of the regular court system.
(d) The direct election of judges by the people.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: An integrated judiciary signifies a unified system with the Supreme Court at the top, followed by High Courts at the state level, and subordinate courts below. This structure ensures a single chain of command and appellate jurisdiction, promoting uniformity in the application of law.
46. The power of Judicial Review, a cornerstone of the Indian legal system, is derived primarily from:
(a) Article 32, which guarantees the right to constitutional remedies.
(b) Article 14, which guarantees equality before the law.
(c) Article 13, which declares laws inconsistent with the Constitution as void.
(d) Article 21, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 13 is the foundation of Judicial Review. It explicitly states that any law inconsistent with the Constitution shall be void. This empowers the judiciary to examine the validity of legislative and executive actions against the Constitution. While other articles might indirectly support the concept, Article 13 is the direct source.
47. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) serves which of the following purposes?
(a) To allow individuals to directly challenge government policies that affect the public at large.
(b) To provide a platform for frivolous lawsuits aimed at harassing public officials.
(c) To enable the judiciary to interfere in matters of policy best left to the executive and legislature.
(d) To empower the state to restrict freedom of speech and expression in the name of public order.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: PIL provides a mechanism for citizens or public-spirited organizations to approach the court for redressal of public grievances, especially when a large number of people are affected but are unable to individually pursue legal recourse.
48. Which of the following provisions contribute to the independence of the judiciary in India?
(a) Security of tenure for judges, ensuring they cannot be removed arbitrarily.
(b) Fixed salaries and allowances for judges, protecting them from financial pressures.
(c) The power of the judiciary to appoint its own judges.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (a) and (b) are correct.
Explanation: Security of tenure and fixed salaries are crucial for judicial independence, as they shield judges from political or economic influence. While the collegium system plays a role in judicial appointments, it is not absolute and still involves the executive. Therefore, (c) is not entirely correct.
49. A “Constitutional Bench” of the Supreme Court is typically constituted to hear cases involving:
(a) Disputes between two or more states.
(b) Interpretation of the Constitution or substantial questions of law.
(c) Criminal appeals involving death sentences.
(d) Elections disputes.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Constitutional Benches, usually comprising five or more judges, are formed to hear cases that involve significant questions of constitutional interpretation or substantial questions of law that require authoritative pronouncement. While the Supreme Court might hear other types of cases, a Constitutional Bench is specifically designated for these complex legal and constitutional matters.
50. The term “secular” was explicitly added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by which amendment?
(a) 44th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 73rd Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment, often referred to as the “mini-constitution,” inserted the word “secular” (along with “socialist”) into the Preamble, formally declaring India as a secular republic.
51. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the Indian concept of secularism?
(a) The state actively promotes one particular religion as the official religion.
(b) The state maintains a neutral stance towards all religions, neither favoring nor discriminating against any.
(c) The state strictly separates religion from all aspects of public life, including education and personal law.
(d) The state prohibits the practice of all religions.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Indian secularism emphasizes equal respect for all religions. It doesn’t mean a complete separation of religion from the state but rather a principle of non-interference and neutrality, ensuring that the state does not endorse any particular religion.
52. The freedom of religion guaranteed by Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution includes:
(a) The right to propagate one’s religion.
(b) The right to convert individuals to one’s religion through coercion or inducement.
(c) The right to establish and maintain religious institutions.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Articles 25-28 guarantee the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice, and propagate religion. It also includes the right to manage religious affairs and establish religious institutions. However, the right to propagate does not include the right to convert through force, fraud, or allurement.
53. The Uniform Civil Code (UCC), as envisioned in Article 44 of the Constitution, aims to:
(a) Establish a uniform set of criminal laws for all citizens, regardless of religion.
(b) Provide a common set of personal laws for all citizens in matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption, irrespective of religion.
(c) Abolish all religious personal laws and replace them with a secular civil code.
(d) Promote religious uniformity by enforcing the majority religion’s personal laws on all citizens.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The UCC aims to create a single set of personal laws applicable to all citizens, irrespective of their religious beliefs, covering areas like marriage, divorce, inheritance, etc. It’s distinct from criminal law, which is already largely uniform. The objective is not necessarily to abolish all religion-based laws but to create a common code.
54. Which of the following poses a challenge to the secular fabric of India?
(a) The existence of diverse religious communities.
(b) The rise of communalism and religious extremism.
(c) The guarantee of freedom of religion in the Constitution.
(d) The implementation of affirmative action policies for minority groups.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Communalism, which involves promoting the interests of one religious group over others, directly threatens secularism. It can lead to social divisions, discrimination, and violence. While religious diversity is a reality in India, and freedom of religion is a constitutional right, the exploitation of these factors for political or social gain is what creates the challenge. Affirmative action, properly implemented, can actually strengthen secularism by addressing historical inequalities.
55. Which of the following BEST describes the nature of Indian federalism?
(a) A classic federation based on a contractual agreement between states, with states retaining significant autonomy.
(b) A unitary system with decentralized powers delegated to the states for administrative convenience.
(c) A cooperative federation with a strong Centre, where powers are shared between the Union and the States.
(d) A confederal system where states have greater autonomy and can secede from the Union.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: India’s federalism is unique. It’s not a classic federation, nor is it purely unitary. “Cooperative federalism” captures the essence, emphasizing collaboration between the Centre and States while acknowledging the Centre’s stronger position.
56. Which of the following provisions exemplifies the unitary bias in the Indian Constitution?
(a) The division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(b) The existence of a bicameral Parliament.
(c) The vesting of residuary powers with the Union.
(d) The independent judiciary.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The fact that residuary powers (powers over subjects not explicitly mentioned in the lists) lie with the Union demonstrates a unitary tendency. It gives the Centre a potentially broad legislative domain, particularly in new and evolving areas.
57. The role of the Governor in a state highlights the tension between federal and unitary features because:
(a) The Governor is elected by the state legislature but acts as an agent of the Central government.
(b) The Governor is appointed by the President (effectively the Central government) but acts as the constitutional head of the state.
(c) The Governor has discretionary powers to overrule the decisions of the state government.
(d) The Governor can dissolve the state assembly without the recommendation of the Chief Minister.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Governor’s position embodies the Centre’s influence in state affairs. While appointed by the President, the Governor is expected to act as the constitutional head of the state. This dual role can create friction and highlights the quasi-federal nature of the system.
58. All-India Services like the IAS and IPS are considered a unitary feature because:
(a) They are recruited and trained by the Central government.
(b) They serve in the states but are ultimately controlled by the Centre.
(c) They provide a link between the Centre and the States, facilitating coordination.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: All the options contribute to the unitary aspect. The Centre’s control over recruitment, training, and ultimate disposition of these officers, even when they are serving in states, reinforces the Centre’s administrative influence and creates a unified administrative structure across the country.
59. Which of the following is NOT a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) A written Constitution.
(b) An independent judiciary.
(c) Single citizenship.
(d) Division of powers between the Centre and the States.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Single citizenship is a unitary feature, promoting a sense of national unity. The other options are characteristic features of a federal system: a written constitution outlining the division of powers, an independent judiciary to resolve disputes, and the division of powers itself.
60. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, before its abrogation, granted special status to which state?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Sikkim
(d) Mizoram
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 370 was specific to Jammu and Kashmir, granting it a significant degree of autonomy. It was a temporary provision, though it had remained in force for decades, and was eventually abrogated in 2019.
61. Article 371 of the Indian Constitution makes special provisions for several states. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Nagaland
(d) Manipur
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 371 includes special provisions for Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Nagaland, among other states. These provisions often relate to specific administrative, developmental, or cultural aspects unique to those states. Manipur, while having special provisions under other articles, is not specifically mentioned under Article 371.
62. The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of:
(a) Tribal areas in the Northeastern states.
(b) Scheduled Areas in other parts of India.
(c) Union Territories.
(d) Areas inhabited by linguistic minorities.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule focuses on the administration and control of “Scheduled Areas,” which are areas with a significant tribal population in states other than those covered by the Sixth Schedule (primarily in the Northeast).
63. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution makes special provisions for tribal areas in which region(s)?
(a) All tribal areas across India.
(b) Tribal areas in specific Northeastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
(c) Tribal areas in the Himalayan region.
(d) Tribal areas in Central India.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule is specifically designed for the administration of tribal areas in certain Northeastern states, providing for Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions with a degree of self-governance.
64. The reorganization of states on a linguistic basis, though not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, was a significant development. When did this major reorganization primarily take place?
(a) 1947, immediately after independence.
(b) 1956, following the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission.
(c) 1975, after the declaration of Emergency.
(d) 2000, when several new states were created.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: While the process of linguistic reorganization has been ongoing, the major phase occurred in 1956 based on the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission. This led to the creation of several new states based primarily on language. While new states have been created since then, the 1956 reorganization was the most significant.
65. Which of the following statements BEST explains the significance of India having a single, unified Constitution?
(a) It reinforces the federal structure by clearly delineating the powers of the Centre and the States.
(b) It promotes national unity and integration by establishing a common legal framework for the entire country.
(c) It allows states to have greater autonomy and flexibility in governing their own affairs.
(d) It simplifies the process of amending the Constitution, as only one document needs to be considered.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A single Constitution contributes to national unity by providing a shared legal and political framework. It signifies that all citizens, regardless of their state of residence, are bound by the same fundamental laws and principles. While the Constitution does define the Centre-State relationship, it is not primarily for delineating powers (that is a function of the division of powers within the Constitution).
66. The adoption of Universal Adult Franchise in India, despite widespread illiteracy at the time of independence, reflects:
(a) A pragmatic approach to ensure political stability in a diverse country.
(b) A bold and progressive step towards democratic empowerment.
(c) A calculated risk taken by the framers of the Constitution, hoping that increased political participation would lead to increased literacy.
(d) A recognition of the inherent right of all adult citizens to participate in the democratic process, regardless of their educational level.
Answer: (b) and (d) are correct.
Explanation: Universal Adult Franchise, granting voting rights to all adults regardless of caste, creed, sex, or education, was a remarkably progressive step, especially considering the high levels of illiteracy at the time. It demonstrated a deep faith in the democratic process and the ability of all citizens to participate in it. While political stability and increased literacy were hoped-for outcomes, the core principle was the inherent right to participate.
67. The Election Commission of India, an independent constitutional body, plays a crucial role in:
(a) Conducting free and fair elections at the national and state levels.
(b) Delimiting constituencies and preparing electoral rolls.
(c) Regulating political parties and their funding.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Election Commission’s mandate encompasses a wide range of electoral functions, from the actual conduct of elections to the crucial preparatory work like delimitation and voter registration, as well as regulating the political landscape to ensure fairness.
68. The Public Service Commissions (UPSC and State PSCs) are established under the Constitution to:
(a) Recruit and appoint civil servants to various government positions.
(b) Advise the government on matters related to personnel management.
(c) Ensure the impartiality and efficiency of the civil services.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The PSCs play a vital role in the recruitment process, but their functions extend beyond just recruitment. They also advise the government on service-related matters and are crucial for maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of the civil services.
69. Regarding the official language(s) of India, which of the following is/are correct?
(a) Hindi is the national language of India.
(b) Hindi is the official language of the Union, but English is also permitted for official purposes.
(c) The states are free to choose their own official languages.
(d) There is no officially recognized national language in India.
Answer: (b), (c), and (d) are correct.
Explanation: India does not have a designated national language. Hindi is the official language of the Union government, but English is also allowed for official communication. States have the autonomy to choose their own official languages, leading to a multilingual scenario.
70. Which of the following BEST describes the difference in the amendability of the Indian and US Constitutions?
(a) Both constitutions are equally rigid, requiring a complex process for amendments.
(b) Both constitutions are equally flexible, allowing for relatively easy amendments.
(c) The US Constitution is generally considered more rigid, while the Indian Constitution is a blend of rigidity and flexibility.
(d) The Indian Constitution is more rigid than the US Constitution, requiring ratification by a greater number of states.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The US Constitution is notoriously difficult to amend, requiring supermajorities in both houses of Congress and ratification by three-fourths of the states. The Indian Constitution, while having varying degrees of difficulty for different types of amendments, is generally considered more flexible than the US Constitution.
71. A key difference between the Indian and UK constitutional systems lies in the nature of their constitutions. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both India and the UK have written constitutions, though the UK’s is much older.
(b) India has a written constitution, while the UK’s constitution is largely unwritten, based on conventions, statutes, and judicial precedents.
(c) Both India and the UK have unwritten constitutions, relying on evolving traditions and customs.
(d) India has an unwritten constitution, while the UK has a codified written constitution.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: India’s Constitution is a codified, written document. The UK’s constitution is unwritten, meaning it’s derived from various sources, including parliamentary statutes, common law, judicial pronouncements, and established conventions.
72. Both India and Canada have federal systems. However, a significant difference exists in the allocation of residuary powers. Which of the following accurately reflects this difference?
(a) In India, residuary powers lie with the Union government, while in Canada, they lie with the provinces.
(b) In India, residuary powers lie with the provinces, while in Canada, they lie with the federal government.
(c) Both India and Canada allocate residuary powers to the federal government.
(d) Both India and Canada allocate residuary powers to the provinces.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: In India, any subject not explicitly mentioned in the Union, State, or Concurrent lists falls under the residuary powers of the Union government. In Canada, the reverse is true; residuary powers rest with the provinces.
73. Australia and India, while both having parliamentary systems, differ in their constitutional amendment processes. Which of the following highlights this difference?
(a) India requires ratification by a greater number of states for constitutional amendments compared to Australia.
(b) Australia has a “double majority” requirement for constitutional amendments, which India does not have.
(c) India’s amendment process is significantly more rigid than Australia’s.
(d) Australia’s constitution is unwritten, making its amendment process more flexible compared to India’s written constitution.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Australia’s “double majority” requirement means that a proposed constitutional amendment must be passed by a majority of voters nationwide and a majority of voters in a majority of states. India does not have this specific requirement.
74. Regarding the age and length of the Indian and South African Constitutions, which of the following is correct?
(a) The Indian Constitution is the youngest and shortest, while South Africa’s is older and longer.
(b) The Indian Constitution is older and longer, while South Africa’s is younger and shorter.
(c) Both constitutions are relatively young and of similar length.
(d) Both constitutions are relatively old and of similar length.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: South Africa’s Constitution is one of the newest in the world, having been adopted after the end of apartheid. India’s Constitution, adopted in 1950, is considerably older. Furthermore, the Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution in the world, while South Africa’s, while comprehensive, is not as lengthy.
75. The “Basic Structure Doctrine,” as evolved by the Supreme Court, serves to:
(a) Define the scope of Fundamental Rights.
(b) Limit the amending power of Parliament, ensuring that the fundamental features of the Constitution are preserved.
(c) Establish the supremacy of Parliament over the judiciary.
(d) Define the relationship between the Centre and the States.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Basic Structure Doctrine, a landmark judicial innovation, places limits on Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It holds that certain fundamental features, like secularism, federalism, and democracy, cannot be altered, even through constitutional amendments.
76. Which of the following BEST describes the concept of “Judicial Activism” in the Indian context?
(a) The judiciary strictly adheres to the literal interpretation of the Constitution, avoiding any policy-making role.
(b) The judiciary proactively intervenes in social and political issues, often through Public Interest Litigation (PIL), to uphold constitutional values and address public grievances.
(c) The judiciary defers to the legislature and executive on all matters, limiting its role to interpreting existing laws.
(d) The judiciary actively seeks to expand its own powers at the expense of the other branches of government.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Judicial activism refers to the judiciary’s proactive role in addressing social and political issues, often through PIL. It involves going beyond simply interpreting laws and actively intervening to protect rights, promote social justice, and ensure governmental accountability.
77. “Constitutional Morality,” a concept often discussed in relation to the Indian Constitution, refers to:
(a) Adherence to the formal rules and procedures laid down in the Constitution.
(b) Respect for the underlying values, principles, and spirit of the Constitution, even beyond its literal text.
(c) The moral values of individual judges that influence their interpretation of the Constitution.
(d) Public opinion on constitutional matters.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Constitutional morality goes beyond mere adherence to the legal text. It emphasizes respect for the core values and principles embedded in the Constitution, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. It involves internalizing these values and acting in accordance with the spirit of the Constitution.
78. The Indian Constitution is often described as a “living document.” This signifies that:
(a) The Constitution is constantly being rewritten and amended to reflect changing societal needs.
(b) The Constitution is interpreted and applied in a dynamic way, adapting to evolving circumstances and societal values.
(c) The Constitution is not a static document but evolves with time to serve the needs of a changing society.
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The “living document” concept emphasizes the Constitution’s adaptability. It means that the Constitution is not frozen in time but is interpreted and applied in a way that reflects contemporary societal needs and values. This dynamic interpretation allows the Constitution to remain relevant and effective in a changing world.
79. A “Constitutional Bench” of the Supreme Court is typically constituted to hear cases involving:
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States.
(b) Interpretation of the Constitution or substantial questions of law.
(c) Criminal appeals involving death sentences.
(d) Election disputes.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A Constitutional Bench, consisting of five or more judges, is specifically constituted to deal with cases that involve significant questions of constitutional interpretation or substantial questions of law. These cases often have far-reaching implications and require in-depth analysis of constitutional principles.
80. The abrogation of Article 370 in 2019 had which of the following significant consequences?
(a) It led to the complete integration of Jammu and Kashmir into the Indian Union, removing its special status.
(b) It resulted in the creation of two new Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
(c) It sparked widespread protests and debates about the nature of federalism and autonomy.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The abrogation of Article 370 had all the mentioned consequences. It effectively revoked the special status granted to J&K, leading to its full integration. The state was also bifurcated into two UTs. The decision triggered significant political and social repercussions, raising questions about federalism, autonomy, and the process of constitutional change.
81. The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 has been controversial primarily because:
(a) It makes religion a criterion for granting citizenship to certain categories of refugees.
(b) It excludes Muslim refugees from its purview, raising concerns about discrimination and secularism.
(c) It has led to concerns about its compatibility with Article 14 (equality before the law) of the Constitution.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The CAA amends citizenship laws, making religion a factor in eligibility for citizenship for refugees from specific neighboring countries (excluding Muslims). This has raised concerns about its secular credentials, potential discrimination, and whether it violates the equality provisions of the Constitution.
82. The repeal of the farm laws in 2021 demonstrates:
(a) The government’s responsiveness to public protests and democratic dissent.
(b) The power of organized social movements to influence policy decisions.
(c) The complex interplay between economic reforms, farmers’ rights, and political considerations.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The repeal of the farm laws, after prolonged and widespread protests by farmers, highlights all the mentioned aspects. It shows that the government can be compelled to reconsider its decisions in the face of strong public opposition. It also underscores the power of social movements and the intricate relationship between economic policies, the interests of specific groups (like farmers), and the political landscape.
83. The “One Nation, One Election” proposal, which aims to synchronize elections across India, raises concerns about:
(a) Its potential impact on federalism and state autonomy.
(b) The logistical challenges involved in holding simultaneous elections across the country.
(c) The possibility of diminishing regional issues and concerns in national-level campaigns.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The “One Nation, One Election” idea is complex and has both potential advantages and disadvantages. Concerns have been raised about its potential impact on federalism (as it might reduce the focus on local issues), the massive logistical exercise it would involve, and whether it could marginalize regional concerns.
84. The increasing prevalence of digital technologies and their impact on society has led to discussions about:
(a) The need to adapt the Constitution to address issues of digital rights and privacy.
(b) The balance between individual freedoms and national security in the digital age.
(c) The challenges of regulating online speech and preventing the spread of misinformation.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The rapid growth of digital technologies has raised a host of new legal and constitutional questions. These include the protection of digital rights and privacy, the delicate balance between freedom of expression and national security concerns in the online space, and the complex issues surrounding online content regulation and misinformation. The Constitution, as a living document, needs to be interpreted and possibly amended to address these new challenges.
85. The original handwritten copies of the Indian Constitution are preserved in:
(a) The National Archives of India
(b) The Supreme Court Museum
(c) Helium-filled cases in the Parliament Library
(d) The Rashtrapati Bhavan
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The meticulously handwritten copies of the Constitution are preserved in special helium-filled cases within the Parliament Library. This ensures their long-term preservation and protection from environmental damage.
86. Who was responsible for the beautiful calligraphy of the original handwritten Indian Constitution?
(a) Nandalal Bose
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
(d) Benegal Narsing Rau
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Prem Behari Narain Raizada, a renowned calligrapher, handwrote the entire Constitution in a flowing italic calligraphy style. It’s a testament to his skill and dedication, making the document a work of art in itself.
87. The exquisite artwork that adorns the pages of the Indian Constitution, including illustrations and borders, was created by:
(a) M.F. Husain
(b) Raja Ravi Varma
(c) Nandalal Bose and his team
(d) Jamini Roy
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Nandalal Bose, a distinguished artist, along with his students at Shantiniketan, were responsible for the artistic design and embellishments found throughout the Constitution. Their work adds a unique aesthetic dimension to the document, reflecting India’s rich artistic heritage.
88. “Jana Gana Mana” was adopted as India’s National Anthem on:
(a) August 15, 1947
(b) January 26, 1950
(c) January 24, 1950
(d) November 26, 1949
Answer: (c)
Explanation: While “Jana Gana Mana” was composed by Rabindranath Tagore much earlier, it was formally adopted as the National Anthem by the Constituent Assembly on January 24, 1950, just two days before India’s Republic Day.
89. The design of the Indian National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
(a) August 15, 1947
(b) July 22, 1947
(c) January 26, 1950
(d) November 26, 1949
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly adopted the design of the Indian National Flag, with its saffron, white, and green horizontal stripes and the Ashoka Chakra in the center, on July 22, 1947, signifying its importance even before independence.
90. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution declares India to be:
(a) A Federation of States
(b) A Confederation of States
(c) A Union of States
(d) A Unitary State
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 1 clearly states that “India shall be a Union of States.” This phrasing emphasizes that India is not a federation formed through a contractual agreement between states but rather a unified entity comprising various states.
91. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees which of the following rights?
(a) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(b) Equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
(c) Abolition of untouchability.
(d) Freedom of speech and expression.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 14 is a cornerstone of the equality provisions. It guarantees both “equality before the law” (meaning everyone is subject to the same laws) and “equal protection of the laws” (meaning everyone will be treated equally by the law).
92. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees six fundamental freedoms. Which of the following is NOT explicitly mentioned in Article 19?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to form associations and unions
(c) Freedom of religion
(d) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 19 deals with six specific freedoms related to speech, expression, assembly, association, movement, and profession. Freedom of religion is guaranteed separately under Articles 25-28.
93. Article 21A, a significant addition to the Fundamental Rights, guarantees:
(a) The right to education.
(b) The right to life and personal liberty.
(c) The right to form associations and unions.
(d) The right to constitutional remedies.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 21A, inserted by the 86th Amendment, makes the right to education a fundamental right for children in the age group of six to fourteen years. It emphasizes the state’s responsibility to provide free and compulsory education.
94. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of:
(a) Internal disturbance
(b) Breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state
(c) War, external aggression, or armed rebellion
(d) Financial instability
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 352 specifies “war,” “external aggression,” or “armed rebellion” as the grounds for declaring a National Emergency. “Internal disturbance” was previously a ground but was replaced by “armed rebellion” by the 44th Amendment. The other options pertain to different types of emergencies or situations.
95. The 7th Amendment to the Indian Constitution, a major landmark, primarily dealt with:
(a) The insertion of Fundamental Duties.
(b) The reorganization of states on a linguistic basis.
(c) The curtailment of the right to property.
(d) The introduction of the Anti-Defection Law.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 7th Amendment, passed in 1956, implemented the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission and led to the redrawing of state boundaries primarily based on language. It significantly reshaped the map of India.
96. The 24th Amendment to the Indian Constitution is crucial because it:
(a) Added the word “secular” to the Preamble.
(b) Affirmed Parliament’s power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
(c) Introduced the concept of cooperative federalism.
(d) Established the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 24th Amendment was a response to earlier judicial interpretations that had limited Parliament’s amending powers. It clarified that Parliament has the power to amend any provision of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, although this power is still subject to the Basic Structure Doctrine.
97. The Anti-Defection Law, a significant measure to curb political instability, was introduced by which Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 52nd Amendment
(c) 73rd Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 52nd Amendment, passed in 1985, added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, containing the Anti-Defection Law. This law aims to prevent elected members from switching parties after elections, a practice that had led to frequent floor-crossings and political instability.
98. The 73rd and 74th Amendments are considered landmark amendments because they:
(a) Introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
(b) Granted special status to certain states.
(c) Provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies.
(d) Amended the procedure for the election of the President.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 73rd and 74th Amendments, passed in 1992, are landmark amendments that decentralized power by granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural local bodies) and Urban Local Bodies (municipalities). This led to greater local self-governance.
99. The 101st Amendment to the Indian Constitution is associated with the introduction of:
(a) The Right to Education.
(b) The Goods and Services Tax (GST).
(c) The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).
(d) Reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 101st Amendment, passed in 2016, is a major tax reform that introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST), a comprehensive indirect tax levied on most goods and services. It aimed to create a unified common market across the country.
100. The judiciary’s role in “Constitutional Interpretation” is crucial because:
(a) The Constitution is a static document with fixed meanings.
(b) The Constitution’s language can be open to multiple interpretations, and the judiciary clarifies its meaning in specific contexts.
(c) The judiciary has the power to rewrite the Constitution according to contemporary needs.
(d) The judiciary acts as a mouthpiece for the ruling political party’s interpretation of the Constitution.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Constitutional interpretation is essential because the Constitution, while laying down fundamental principles, often uses broad language that can be interpreted differently. The judiciary’s role is to adjudicate disputes and clarify the meaning and scope of constitutional provisions in concrete cases, adapting them to changing circumstances while remaining faithful to the document’s basic structure and spirit.
101. The high number of Constitutional Amendments (over 100) since 1950 suggests:
(a) The Indian Constitution is excessively rigid and requires frequent changes.
(b) The Indian Constitution is remarkably adaptable and has been amended to address evolving societal needs and challenges.
(c) The frequent amendments have weakened the basic structure and core principles of the Constitution.
(d) The amendments primarily reflect the whims of successive governments rather than genuine needs for constitutional change.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The large number of amendments, while sometimes criticized, also demonstrates the Constitution’s capacity to adapt and evolve. It suggests that the Constitution has been used as a tool to address new challenges, incorporate changing social values, and refine governance mechanisms. While some amendments have been controversial, the overall picture is one of adaptation.
102. The Indian Constitution’s influence on other countries, particularly those like South Africa and Nepal, can be attributed to:
(a) Its unique blend of fundamental rights and directive principles.
(b) Its successful functioning as a framework for a large and diverse democracy.
(c) Its detailed provisions relating to federalism and minority rights.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution has served as a source of inspiration for many newly independent nations, especially those with diverse populations. Its comprehensive articulation of fundamental rights, its innovative inclusion of directive principles, and its detailed provisions on federalism and minority rights have been particularly influential.
103. Despite its successes, the Indian Constitution continues to face challenges. Which of the following remain areas of ongoing debate and contestation?
(a) The balance of power between the Centre and the States (federalism).
(b) The interpretation and implementation of secularism.
(c) The maintenance of judicial independence and its relationship with the other branches of government.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: These are all areas of ongoing debate and sometimes tension. The dynamics of federalism, the precise meaning and application of secularism, and the balance between judicial independence and governmental authority continue to be discussed and negotiated in Indian society.
104. The “dynamic nature” of the Indian Constitution implies that:
(a) The Constitution is constantly being rewritten and replaced.
(b) The Constitution is interpreted and applied in a way that adapts to changing social, economic, and political realities.
(c) The Constitution is a rigid document that cannot be changed under any circumstances.
(d) The Constitution is only relevant to the time period in which it was written.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The “dynamic nature” of the Indian Constitution emphasizes its capacity to evolve through interpretation and amendment. It means that the Constitution’s principles are applied to new situations and challenges, ensuring its continued relevance and effectiveness in a changing society. It’s a balance between respecting the foundational principles and adapting to the times.
Mastering the making of the Indian Constitution is essential for clearing UPSC CSE, as it forms the foundation of Indian polity. These 100 MCQs not only help you assess your knowledge but also provide in-depth explanations to strengthen your understanding. Regular practice of such questions will give you an edge in tackling UPSC Prelims and Mains with confidence.
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