Aspiring to crack India’s top competitive exams like the UPSC? Then a thorough understanding of how our Constitution evolves is indispensable. Article 368, the very heart of the Constitution’s amendment process, is a crucial topic for any serious aspirant. It outlines the methods by which the foundational law of our land can be adapted to changing times.
To help you master this vital area, we’ve curated a set of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) focusing specifically on the Amendment of the Constitution under Article 368. Each MCQ comes with a detailed explanation, ensuring you not only know the right answer but also understand the ‘why’ behind it. Whether you’re revising your polity syllabus or tackling this topic for the first time, these MCQs will serve as an excellent tool for assessment and learning. Let’s begin this insightful journey into the amendatory powers of the Indian Parliament!
Amendment of the Constitution MCQs and Answers
1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the scope of the amending power of the Indian Parliament under Article 368?
(a) Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution, including its basic structure.
(b) Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution, but the basic structure doctrine limits this power.
(c) Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution with a simple majority.
(d) Parliament’s amending power is co-extensive with that of a constituent assembly.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the basic structure doctrine, which holds that while Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, it cannot alter its fundamental features or basic structure.
2. The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 requires ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States for which of the following provisions?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Provisions relating to the election of the President
(d) Matters concerning the Union territories
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 368(2) specifies that amendments to certain provisions, including those relating to the election of the President (Article 54 and 55), require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by a simple majority.
3. Which of the following amendments to the Constitution of India conferred fundamental rights on citizens with disabilities?
(a) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
(b) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
(c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation: While various amendments have addressed the concerns of marginalized groups, no specific amendment has directly conferred fundamental rights exclusively on citizens with disabilities. However, other laws and judicial interpretations ensure their rights are protected under existing fundamental rights.
4. Consider the following statements regarding the amendment process in India:
- A Bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
- There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament if there is a disagreement on a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Statement 2 is correct. Article 368 does not provide for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses on such a bill.
5. The 101st Amendment Act, 2016, is related to which of the following?
(a) Reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
(b) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
(c) National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)
(d) Panchayati Raj Institutions
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 101st Amendment Act, 2016, paved the way for the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India.
6. Which part of the Constitution of India cannot be amended even by following the procedure laid down in Article 368?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The basic structure of the Constitution as propounded by the Supreme Court
(d) Any provision of the Constitution if there is a consensus among all political parties
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Supreme Court, through the basic structure doctrine, has held that even with the procedure under Article 368, the fundamental features or basic structure of the Constitution cannot be altered.
7. The 99th Amendment Act, 2014, which was subsequently struck down by the Supreme Court, was related to:
(a) The establishment of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)
(b) The right to education as a fundamental right
(c) The creation of new States
(d) The extension of reservation in promotions
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The 99th Amendment Act, 2014, aimed to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) for the appointment of judges to the higher judiciary. However, the Supreme Court struck it down, upholding the collegium system and the independence of the judiciary as part of the basic structure.
8. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments made it mandatory for the State to provide early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
(d) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 45 in Part IV (Directive Principles) making it a directive principle for the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. It also added Article 21A, making the right to education a fundamental right for children between 6 and 14 years.
9. Consider the following provisions of the Constitution:
- Article 54 (Election of the President)
- Article 55 (Manner of election of the President)
- Article 73 (Extent of executive power of the Union)
Which of these provisions requires ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States for their amendment?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: As per Article 368(2), amendments to Articles 54 and 55, which deal with the election and manner of election of the President, require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States. Article 73 does not fall under this category.
10. The concept of “constitutional amendment by implication” is generally associated with:
(a) Direct amendments to the text of the Constitution.
(b) Judicial interpretations that alter the meaning and scope of constitutional provisions.
(c) Amendments passed by Parliament with a simple majority.
(d) Amendments that are never formally ratified but are followed in practice.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: “Constitutional amendment by implication” refers to the changes in the understanding and application of the Constitution that occur through judicial interpretations by the Supreme Court, even without formal textual amendments.
11. Which of the following amendments added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution, dealing with the Municipalities?
(a) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
(b) 74th Amendment Act, 1992
(c) 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
(d) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 74th Amendment Act, 1992, added Part IX-A to the Constitution, which contains provisions relating to Municipalities. The 73rd Amendment Act added Part IX dealing with Panchayats.
12. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is a constituent power. This statement implies that:
(a) Parliament can frame a new Constitution.
(b) Parliament’s amending power is unlimited.
(c) While amending, Parliament exercises the same authority as the original constituent assembly, subject to the basic structure doctrine.
(d) Amendments passed by Parliament do not require the President’s assent.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Calling the amending power a “constituent power” signifies that Parliament, when amending the Constitution, is exercising a fundamental power to shape the framework of the state, albeit within the constraints of the basic structure doctrine laid down by the judiciary.
13. Which of the following amendments to the Constitution of India inserted Article 359A?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(c) 32nd Amendment Act, 1973
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 32nd Amendment Act, 1973, inserted Article 359A, which made special provisions with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh.
14. Consider the following subjects:
- Trade and commerce within the State
- Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods
- Administration of justice; constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the High Courts
Which of these subjects, if a law made by a State legislature on them is repugnant to a law made by Parliament, requires the assent of the President to prevail?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 254(2) states that if a law made by the Legislature of a State with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List contains any provision repugnant to the provisions of an earlier law made by Parliament or an existing law with respect to that matter, then the law so made by the Legislature of such State shall, if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, prevail in that State. All the listed subjects fall under the State List or Concurrent List.
15. Which of the following amendments to the Constitution of India reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(c) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
(d) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 61st Amendment Act, 1988, amended Article 326 of the Constitution to lower the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.
16. The “doctrine of severability” and the “doctrine of eclipse” are primarily applied by the Indian judiciary in the context of:
(a) Interpreting the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(b) Determining the validity of laws that allegedly violate fundamental rights.
(c) Resolving disputes between the Union and the States.
(d) Reviewing Constitutional Amendments.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Both the doctrine of severability (allowing the invalid part of a law to be separated from the valid part) and the doctrine of eclipse (keeping a pre-constitutional law inoperative to the extent of its inconsistency with fundamental rights) are crucial tools used by the judiciary to assess the constitutionality of laws vis-à-vis fundamental rights.
17. Which of the following amendments added the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India?
(a) First Amendment Act, 1951
(b) Seventh Amendment Act, 1956
(c) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(d) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The First Amendment Act, 1951, added the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains a list of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in courts on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, the Supreme Court has ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review on the ground of violation of the basic structure.
18. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of a Constitutional Amendment:
- An amendment can alter the federal structure of the Constitution.
- An amendment can curtail the fundamental rights guaranteed to citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Constitutional amendments can indeed alter the federal structure (subject to the basic structure doctrine requiring state ratification for certain changes) and can also curtail fundamental rights (again, subject to judicial review based on the basic structure).
19. The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, aimed at limiting the size of the Council of Ministers to prevent:
(a) Frequent changes in government.
(b) The misuse of public funds.
(c) Defections and the creation of large ministries to secure majority.
(d) Delays in decision-making due to a large cabinet.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, was enacted to curb the practice of political defections by limiting the size of the Council of Ministers at the Union and State levels to 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly, respectively.
20. Which of the following amendments inserted Article 21A in the Constitution of India, declaring the right to education as a fundamental right?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
(d) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, which states that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
21. The power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution of India lies with:
(a) The President of India.
(b) The Parliament of India.
(c) The Supreme Court of India.
(d) The State Legislatures.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 368 clearly states that an amendment to the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a special majority.
22. Which of the following amendments added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, containing provisions relating to anti-defection?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(c) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
(d) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, which lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection to another political party.
23. Consider the following statements regarding the special majority required for amending certain provisions of the Constitution:
- It requires a majority of the total membership of each House.
- It requires a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Explanation: Article 368(2) specifies that a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
24. Which of the following amendments extended reservation to Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in educational institutions?
(a) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
(b) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
(c) 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 93rd Amendment Act, 2005, inserted clause (5) in Article 15, enabling the State to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in so far as such special provisions relate to their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of Article 30.
25. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, is often referred to as the “Mini-Constitution” because it:
(a) Introduced a new preamble to the Constitution.
(b) Made extensive and significant changes to various parts of the Constitution.
(c) Reduced the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
(d) Primarily focused on amending the fundamental rights.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, brought about a large number of significant changes to the Constitution, affecting its preamble, fundamental rights, directive principles, distribution of powers, and the judiciary, hence the moniker “Mini-Constitution.”
26. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The name or boundaries of a State
(d) Provisions relating to the election of the President
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 4 allows for the amendment of the First Schedule (names and territories of States) and Article 169 (abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States) by a simple majority in Parliament. These amendments are not considered amendments to the Constitution for the purpose of Article 368.
27. The 103rd Amendment Act, 2019, introduced reservation for which of the following categories?
(a) Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
(b) Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs)
(c) Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
(d) Women
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 103rd Amendment Act, 2019, provided for 10% reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in jobs and educational institutions. It added clauses (6) to Articles 15 and 16 of the Constitution.
28. Consider the following statements regarding the ratification of Constitutional Amendment Bills by State Legislatures:
- All Constitutional Amendment Bills require ratification by the States.
- The ratification by the States must be by a special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Only certain provisions, as specified in Article 368(2), require state ratification. Statement 2 is also incorrect. The ratification by the State Legislatures is by a simple majority.
29. Which of the following amendments empowered the President to issue different proclamations of National Emergency on different grounds simultaneously?
(a) 38th Amendment Act, 1975
(b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(d) 59th Amendment Act, 1988
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The 38th Amendment Act, 1975, inserted clause (1A) in Article 352, empowering the President to issue different proclamations of emergency at the same time on different grounds. However, the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, removed this provision.
30. The concept of “inconsistency test” is often used by the judiciary when dealing with:
(a) The interpretation of the Preamble.
(b) Conflicts between fundamental rights and directive principles.
(c) Repugnancy between a State law and a Union law on a subject in the Concurrent List.
(d) Challenges to the basic structure of the Constitution.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The “inconsistency test” is applied under Article 254 to resolve conflicts or repugnancy between laws made by Parliament and laws made by State legislatures on subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List.
31. Which of the following amendments inserted the words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(a) First Amendment Act, 1951
(b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(d) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, inserted the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
32. Consider the following statements regarding the power of judicial review over Constitutional Amendments in India:
- Initially, Constitutional Amendments were considered beyond the scope of judicial review.
- The Supreme Court asserted the power of judicial review over Constitutional Amendments in the Kesavananda Bharati case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Initially, there was a debate about whether Constitutional Amendments could be challenged in courts. Statement 2 is also correct. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) was a turning point, where the Supreme Court established the basic structure doctrine and asserted its power to review Constitutional Amendments to ensure they do not violate this doctrine.
33. Which of the following amendments added a new Part IV-A to the Constitution, dealing with Fundamental Duties?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(c) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
(d) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, added Part IV-A to the Constitution, which lists the Fundamental Duties of the citizens of India.
34. The requirement of ratification by the States for amending certain provisions ensures:
(a) The supremacy of the Union Parliament.
(b) The flexibility of the Constitution.
(c) The federal character of the Constitution is maintained.
(d) The process of amendment is quick and efficient.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The provision for state ratification for amendments affecting the federal structure is a safeguard to ensure that changes to the distribution of powers and the relationship between the Union and the States are made with the consent and participation of the States, thus upholding the federal character of the Constitution.
35. Which of the following amendments made special provisions with respect to the State of Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) 53rd Amendment Act, 1986
(b) 55th Amendment Act, 1986
(c) 57th Amendment Act, 1987
(d) 69th Amendment Act, 1991
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 55th Amendment Act, 1986, made special provisions with respect to the State of Arunachal Pradesh, particularly regarding the composition of its Legislative Assembly.
36. Consider the following provisions:
- Article 368
- Article 13
- Article 32
Which of these articles are directly relevant to the concept of judicial review of Constitutional Amendments?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 13 declares that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights shall be void. Article 32 guarantees the right to constitutional remedies, allowing individuals to approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. While Article 368 lays down the procedure for amendment, Articles 13 and 32 provide the basis for judicial review to ensure that amendments do not violate fundamental rights or the basic structure.
37. Which of the following amendments granted statehood to Goa?
(a) 55th Amendment Act, 1986
(b) 56th Amendment Act, 1987
(c) 69th Amendment Act, 1991
(d) 71st Amendment Act, 1992
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 56th Amendment Act, 1987, granted statehood to Goa and made special provisions with respect to the Legislative Assembly of the newly formed State.
38. The “golden triangle” of fundamental rights, which has been significantly interpreted by the Supreme Court, comprises which of the following Articles?
(a) Articles 14, 19, and 21
(b) Articles 15, 16, and 17
(c) Articles 25, 26, and 27
(d) Articles 32, 226, and 136
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Supreme Court has often emphasized the interconnectedness of Articles 14 (equality before law), 19 (protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.), and 21 (protection of life and personal liberty), referring to them as the “golden triangle” of fundamental rights, where each article illuminates and strengthens the others.
39. Which of the following amendments included Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali as official languages of India?
(a) 91st Amendment Act, 2003
(b) 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
(c) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
(d) 100th Amendment Act, 2015
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 92nd Amendment Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali as official languages, increasing the total number of official languages to 22.
40. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is derived from:
(a) The Preamble of the Constitution.
(b) Article 368 of the Constitution.
(c) The residuary powers of the Union under Article 248.
(d) An inherent sovereign power of the Parliament.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 368 explicitly grants the power to Parliament to amend the Constitution and also lays down the procedure for such amendment.
41. Which of the following amendments is related to the establishment of the National Commission for Backward Classes as a constitutional body?
(a) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
(b) 102nd Amendment Act, 2018
(c) 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 102nd Amendment Act, 2018, conferred constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) by inserting a new Article 338B in the Constitution.
42. Consider the following limitations on the amending power of Parliament:
- It cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
- Amendments to certain provisions require ratification by the States.
- A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be vetoed by the President.
Which of the limitations given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Limitations 1 and 2 are correct. The basic structure doctrine limits Parliament’s power, and certain amendments require state ratification. Limitation 3 is incorrect. Once a Constitutional Amendment Bill is passed by both Houses of Parliament with the required majority (and ratified by states where necessary), the President is bound to give assent to the Bill.
43. Which of the following amendments provided for the establishment of a National Goods and Services Tax Council?
(a) 100th Amendment Act, 2015
(b) 101st Amendment Act, 2016
(c) 102nd Amendment Act, 2018
(d) 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 101st Amendment Act, 2016, inserted Article 279A, which provides for the establishment of a Goods and Services Tax Council.
44. The concept of “implied limitations” on the amending power of the Constitution suggests that:
(a) Parliament’s amending power is only explicitly mentioned in Article 368.
(b) Besides the basic structure doctrine, there might be other unstated limits on Parliament’s power to amend.
(c) State legislatures also have an implied power to amend certain parts of the Constitution.
(d) Judicial review of amendments is an implied power of the Supreme Court.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The debate around “implied limitations” goes beyond the basic structure doctrine and explores whether there are other fundamental principles or features of the Constitution that, even if not explicitly mentioned in the basic structure list, cannot be abrogated by an amendment.
45. Which of the following amendments dealt with the territorial jurisdiction of the Union Territory of Delhi and renamed it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
(a) 69th Amendment Act, 1991
(b) 70th Amendment Act, 1992
(c) 74th Amendment Act, 1992
(d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The 69th Amendment Act, 1991, inserted Articles 239AA and 239BB, which made special provisions with respect to Delhi and designated it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi with a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers.
46. Consider the following stages in the amendment process under Article 368:
- Introduction of the Bill in either House of Parliament.
- Passing of the Bill in each House by a special majority.
- Assent of the President to the Bill.
- Ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States (if applicable).
The correct chronological sequence of these stages is:
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 2-1-3-4
(d) 2-1-4-3
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The correct sequence is: 1. Introduction of the Bill, 2. Passing by special majority in both Houses, 4. Ratification by States (if required), 3. Presidential assent.
47. Which of the following amendments extended the period of reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
(a) 79th Amendment Act, 1999
(b) 95th Amendment Act, 2009
(c) 104th Amendment Act, 2019
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The 79th, 95th, and 104th Amendment Acts have successively extended the period of reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. The 104th Amendment extended it up to January 25, 2030.
48. The primary objective of the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts, 1992, was to:
(a) Provide constitutional status and protection to Fundamental Rights.
(b) Introduce the Goods and Services Tax regime.
(c) Strengthen the federal structure by granting more powers to the States.
(d) Provide constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions and Municipalities.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts, 1992, added Part IX (Panchayats) and Part IX-A (Municipalities) to the Constitution, respectively, thereby granting constitutional status and a framework for these local self-government institutions.
49. Which of the following principles is NOT considered part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution by the Supreme Court?
(a) Supremacy of the Constitution
(b) Secular character of the State
(c) Parliamentary form of government
(d) Right to property
Answer: (d)
Explanation: While the right to property was initially a fundamental right, it was removed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, and made a constitutional right under Article 300A. The other options – supremacy of the Constitution, secular character, and parliamentary form of government – are considered integral parts of the basic structure.
50. A Constitutional Amendment Bill, after being passed by both Houses of Parliament, requires the assent of the President under Article 368(2):
(a) With no option to withhold assent.
(b) With the option to return it for reconsideration.
(c) Only if it affects the federal structure.
(d) Only if it curtails fundamental rights.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Once a Constitutional Amendment Bill is duly passed by both Houses of Parliament with the required special majority (and ratified by states where necessary), the President is constitutionally bound to give assent to the Bill. There is no provision for the President to withhold assent or return it for reconsideration.
You’ve reached the end of this set of MCQs on the Amendment of the Constitution (Article 368). Hopefully, this exercise has provided you with a clearer understanding of the procedures, types of amendments, and the significance of Article 368 within the Indian polity. Remember, the ability of a constitution to adapt is a sign of its dynamism, and Article 368 is key to this process for the Indian Constitution.
Continue to test your knowledge and deepen your understanding of constitutional concepts. Share this resource with fellow aspirants if you found it beneficial. We wish you success in your competitive endeavors. Stay tuned for more focused content to aid your preparation!