Centre-State Relations form a vital component of Indian Polity, especially given India’s quasi-federal structure. Questions from this area regularly appear in the UPSC Civil Services Examination, as well as in State PSCs, SSC, and other exams. Aspirants must understand how legislative, administrative, and financial powers are distributed between the Union and the States.
This post presents a thoughtfully compiled set of MCQs on Centre-State Relations, each accompanied by detailed explanations. These will help you identify constitutional provisions, analyze intergovernmental dynamics, and understand landmark cases and commission recommendations relevant to Indian federalism.
Centre-State Relations MCQs and Answers
1. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States?
(a) Article 245 to 254
(b) Article 255 to 263
(c) Article 264 to 281
(d) Article 282 to 291
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Articles 245 to 254 in Part XI of the Indian Constitution delineate the legislative powers between the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures, including the three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
2. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains:
(a) Provisions related to the fundamental rights.
(b) The division of powers between the Union and the States.
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy.
(d) Provisions regarding the Union Territories.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule specifies the three lists that distribute legislative powers between the Union and the States: the Union List (subjects on which the Union Parliament can legislate), the State List (subjects on which State Legislatures can legislate), and the Concurrent List (subjects on which both can legislate).
3. In case of a conflict between a law made by the Parliament and a law made by the State Legislature on a subject in the Concurrent List:
(a) The law made by the State Legislature shall prevail under all circumstances.
(b) The law made by the Parliament shall prevail.
(c) The matter shall be referred to the Supreme Court for a final decision.
(d) Both laws shall be considered valid and shall operate concurrently.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 254 of the Constitution states that if a State law on a Concurrent List subject is repugnant to a Union law on the same subject, the Union law shall prevail. However, if the State law has received the assent of the President, it may prevail in that state, but the Parliament can still enact a law to override it.
4. Residuary powers of legislation under the Indian Constitution are vested in:
(a) The State Legislatures.
(b) The Parliament.
(c) The Supreme Court.
(d) A joint committee of Parliament and State Legislatures.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 248 of the Constitution vests the residuary powers of legislation (the power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Union List, State List, or Concurrent List) exclusively in the Parliament.
5. Which of the following taxes is exclusively levied by the Union Government?
(a) Taxes on agricultural income.
(b) Land revenue.
(c) Taxes on the sale and purchase of goods within a state.
(d) Taxes on income other than agricultural income.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Taxes on income other than agricultural income are listed in the Union List (Entry 82). Taxes on agricultural income and land revenue are in the State List, and taxes on the sale and purchase of goods within a state are also primarily a state subject.
6. Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for recommending the principles governing the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States?
(a) The Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
(b) The Finance Commission.
(c) The Inter-State Council.
(d) The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission every five years (or earlier) to recommend the principles that should govern the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, and the allocation of the respective shares of such proceeds among the States.
7. The Inter-State Council in India is established by:
(a) A constitutional provision.
(b) An Act of Parliament.
(c) An order of the President.
(d) A resolution passed by the National Development Council.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 263 of the Constitution empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears to them that such establishment would serve the public interest. The Inter-State Council aims to facilitate coordination between the States and between the Union and the States.
8. Which of the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is correct?
(a) It is a purely Union body responsible for setting GST rates.
(b) It is chaired by the Prime Minister and includes all State Chief Ministers.
(c) It is a joint forum of the Union and the States.
(d) Its recommendations are binding on both the Union and the States.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The GST Council is a constitutional body (Article 279A) that is a joint forum of the Union and the States. It makes recommendations to the Union and the States on matters related to GST, including rates, exemptions, and thresholds. While its recommendations are generally followed, they are not legally binding on both.
9. During a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can legislate on any subject in the:
(a) Union List only.
(b) State List only.
(c) Concurrent List only.
(d) State List as well.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 250 empowers the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation. However, laws made by Parliament during an emergency cease to have effect six months after the emergency ceases to operate, except for things done or omitted to be done under those laws.
10. Which of the following articles provides for grants-in-aid by the Union to the States?
(a) Article 270
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 280
(d) Article 282
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants-in-aid to the States which are in need of assistance. These grants are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
11. The concept of “cooperative federalism” in India implies:
(a) A strict separation of powers between the Union and the States without any interaction.
(b) The dominance of the Union Government over the State Governments in all matters.
(c) A relationship where the Union and the States cooperate and work together in the governance process.
(d) A system where States have the power to secede from the Union.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Cooperative federalism describes a system where the Union and the States are not entirely independent but work together and share responsibilities in various aspects of governance. This is reflected in mechanisms like the Inter-State Council and joint planning initiatives.
12. Which of the following taxes is shared between the Union and the States as per the recommendations of the Finance Commission?
(a) Corporation tax.
(b) Customs duties.
(c) Excise duties levied by the Union.
(d) Taxes on agricultural income.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Finance Commission recommends the principles for the distribution of the net proceeds of certain taxes levied by the Union between the Union and the States. Historically, Union excise duties were a major shared tax. With GST, the sharing mechanism has evolved, but the underlying principle of sharing Union-levied taxes remains.
13. Under which of the following circumstances can the Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List?
- If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest.
- During a Proclamation of Emergency.
- At the request of two or more State Legislatures.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if the Rajya Sabha passes a special resolution. Article 250 grants this power during a national emergency. Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if two or more states request it, and such a law applies to other states that subsequently adopt it.
14. The Sarkaria Commission was primarily concerned with:
(a) Electoral reforms.
(b) Centre-State relations.
(c) Judicial reforms.
(d) Reforms in the public sector undertakings.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the Union Government in 1983 to examine and report on the relationship and balance of power between the Union and the States in India. Its recommendations have had a significant impact on shaping Centre-State relations.
15. Which of the following bodies plays a crucial role in promoting inter-state coordination and cooperation in India?
(a) The Supreme Court.
(b) The Election Commission of India.
(c) The Inter-State Council.
(d) The National Human Rights Commission.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Inter-State Council, established under Article 263, is specifically designed to inquire into and advise upon disputes which may have arisen between States; to investigate and discuss subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States have a common interest; or to make recommendations upon any such subject and, in particular, recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject.
16. Which of the following is an example of the Union Government’s exclusive legislative power?
(a) Public order.
(b) Police.
(c) Banking.
(d) Agriculture.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Banking is Entry 45 of the Union List, giving the Union Parliament exclusive power to legislate on this subject. Public order and police are generally State List subjects, while agriculture is also primarily in the State List.
17. The concept of “fiscal federalism” in India deals with:
(a) The division of administrative powers between the Union and the States.
(b) The distribution of financial resources and taxation powers between the Union and the States.
(c) The resolution of financial disputes between States.
(d) The financial autonomy of local government bodies.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Fiscal federalism focuses on the financial relationship between the different levels of government, primarily the Union and the States, including the allocation of taxation powers, the distribution of tax revenues, and grants-in-aid.
18. Which of the following subjects falls under the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule?
(a) Defence.
(b) Railways.
(c) Education.
(d) Agriculture.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Education is listed in the Concurrent List (Entry 25), meaning both the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures can make laws on this subject. Defence and railways are in the Union List, while agriculture is primarily in the State List.
19. The power of the Union Parliament to form new States and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States is derived from:
(a) Article 368 (Amendment of the Constitution).
(b) Article 2 and Article 3 of the Constitution.
(c) Article 246 (Distribution of Legislative Powers).
(d) The residuary powers under Article 248.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 2 deals with the admission or establishment of new States, while Article 3 deals with the formation of new States and the alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing States. These powers are vested in the Parliament.
20. Which of the following taxes was subsumed under the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
(a) Income tax.
(b) Corporation tax.
(c) Value Added Tax (VAT) levied by the States.
(d) Wealth tax.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: GST was introduced to subsume various indirect taxes levied by the Union and the States. State VAT was a major state-level tax that was integrated into the GST regime. Income tax, corporation tax, and wealth tax are direct taxes and were not subsumed under GST.
21. The Finance Commission is a:
(a) Permanent statutory body.
(b) Ad-hoc body constituted every five years (or earlier).
(c) Joint committee of the Parliament and State Legislatures.
(d) Branch of the Ministry of Finance.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President under Article 280, typically every five years or earlier, to make recommendations on the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States.
22. Which of the following is an important mechanism for inter-governmental consultation and coordination in India, besides the Inter-State Council?
(a) The National Development Council (NDC).
(b) The Zonal Councils.
(c) Meetings of the Chief Ministers with the Prime Minister.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The National Development Council (now less active post-NITI Aayog), Zonal Councils (statutory bodies promoting inter-state cooperation at regional levels), and regular meetings between the Prime Minister and Chief Ministers all serve as important platforms for inter-governmental consultation and coordination.
23. Which of the following subjects is exclusively under the legislative jurisdiction of the State Legislature?
(a) Foreign affairs.
(b) Atomic energy.
(c) Prisons.
(d) Inter-state trade and commerce.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Prisons are listed under the State List (Entry 4), giving State Legislatures exclusive power to legislate on this subject. Foreign affairs and atomic energy are in the Union List, while inter-state trade and commerce are also under the Union’s jurisdiction.
24. The concept of “asymmetrical federalism” in India refers to:
(a) The equal distribution of powers and resources among all States.
(b) The existence of differential powers and privileges granted to certain States.
(c) A situation where the Union Government has significantly more powers than the States.
(d) The division of the country into geographically unequal federal units.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Asymmetrical federalism in India is evident in the special provisions granted to certain States under Article 371 and other specific constitutional provisions, recognizing their unique historical, cultural, or geographical circumstances.
25. Which of the following taxes is levied and collected by the States but the proceeds are assigned to the Union?
(a) Stamp duties on bills of exchange and promissory notes.
(b) Excise duties on alcoholic liquors for human consumption.
(c) Taxes on the sale and purchase of newspapers.
(d) Taxes on advertisements broadcast by radio or television.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Stamp duties on bills of exchange, promissory notes, etc., are mentioned in the Union List (Entry 91) as taxes that are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.
26. The primary objective of establishing Zonal Councils in India is to:
(a) Resolve inter-state water disputes.
(b) Promote cooperation and coordination among the States within each zone.
(c) Oversee the implementation of centrally sponsored schemes.
(d) Act as appellate bodies for inter-state boundary disputes.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Zonal Councils are statutory advisory bodies established to promote cooperation and coordination among the States within their respective zones on matters of common interest, such as economic and social planning, inter-state transport, and cultural exchange.
27. Which of the following articles of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution, or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley?
(a) Article 261
(b) Article 262
(c) Article 263
(d) Article 264
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 262 deals with the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys. It also allows Parliament to enact laws to exclude such disputes from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts.
28. The power of the Governor to reserve a bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President is provided under:
(a) Article 200 of the Constitution.
(b) Article 201 of the Constitution.
(c) Article 254 of the Constitution.
(d) Article 356 of the Constitution.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 200 outlines the Governor’s options when a bill is passed by the State Legislature, including giving assent, withholding assent, returning the bill for reconsideration, or reserving it for the President’s consideration.
29. Which of the following is NOT a ground for the President to promulgate an Ordinance when Parliament is not in session?
(a) Immediate action is necessary due to unforeseen circumstances.
(b) The government has a strong majority and wants to bypass parliamentary debate.
(c) The President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for them to take immediate action.
(d) The Ordinance relates to a matter in the Union List or the Concurrent List (or the State List during an emergency).
Answer: (b)
Explanation: While the President has the power to promulgate Ordinances under Article 123 when Parliament is not in session and they are satisfied that immediate action is required, bypassing parliamentary debate solely due to a strong majority is not a legitimate ground. The necessity for immediate action due to circumstances is the key requirement.
30. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is based on the principle of:
(a) Origin-based taxation.
(b) Destination-based taxation.
(c) Production-based taxation.
(d) Consumption-based taxation within state boundaries.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: GST is a destination-based consumption tax, meaning that the tax revenue accrues to the state where the goods or services are consumed, not where they are produced or originate.
31. Which of the following committees/commissions is NOT primarily associated with Centre-State relations?
(a) Rajamannar Committee
(b) Sarkaria Commission
(c) Punchhi Commission
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Rajamannar Committee (Tamil Nadu), Sarkaria Commission, and Punchhi Commission were all specifically appointed by the Union Government to examine and make recommendations on various aspects of Centre-State relations. The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) is primarily known for its recommendations on Panchayati Raj institutions.
32. Which of the following financial resources are exclusively assigned to the States?
(a) Taxes on income other than agricultural income.
(b) Corporation tax.
(c) Duties of excise on alcoholic liquors for human consumption.
(d) Customs duties.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Duties of excise on alcoholic liquors for human consumption are listed in the State List (Entry 51), meaning the States have the exclusive power to levy and collect these taxes, and the proceeds are assigned to them. The other options are primarily Union subjects.
33. Under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution (President’s Rule), the President can assume the functions of the:
- Governor of the State.
- State Government.
- State Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: When President’s Rule is imposed in a State under Article 356, the President can assume all or any of the functions of the State Government and the powers vested in the Governor or any other State body. The Parliament also assumes the powers of the State Legislature to make laws for the State.
34. Which of the following statements regarding the All India Services (like IAS and IPS) is correct in the context of Centre-State relations?
(a) They are exclusively controlled and managed by the respective State Governments.
(b) They are recruited and trained by the Union Government but serve under the State Governments.
(c) They are jointly recruited and managed by the Union and the State Governments.
(d) They are primarily meant to serve the Union Government and have limited roles in the States.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: All India Services officers are recruited and trained by the Union Government (through UPSC) but are then allocated to different State cadres where they serve under the administrative control of the State Governments. This system is a unique feature of Indian federalism, providing a link between the Union and the States.
35. The power to conduct elections to the State Legislatures is vested in the:
(a) State Election Commissions.
(b) Election Commission of India.
(c) Governor of the State.
(d) Chief Minister of the State.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Election Commission of India (a Union body) is responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, the office of the President, and the office of the Vice-President (Article 324). State Election Commissions are responsible for conducting elections to local bodies like Panchayats and Municipalities.
36. Which of the following is a potential area of conflict between the Centre and the States in India?
(a) The uniform application of Union laws across all States.
(b) The sharing of financial resources and the extent of States’ fiscal autonomy.
(c) The smooth functioning of inter-state trade and commerce.
(d) The coordination of policies on subjects in the Union List.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The distribution of financial resources, the principles governing grants-in-aid, and the extent to which States have the autonomy to manage their finances are frequent points of contention between the Union and the States.
37. The National Development Council (NDC) was primarily established to:
(a) Resolve disputes between States.
(b) Approve and oversee the Five-Year Plans.
(c) Recommend the distribution of tax revenues.
(d) Coordinate the activities of the Union Ministries.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The National Development Council (now less active with the advent of NITI Aayog) was the apex body for decision-making and deliberation on development matters in India. Its primary function was to approve the Five-Year Plans formulated by the Planning Commission and to periodically review the progress of the plans.
38. Which of the following constitutional provisions promotes administrative cooperation between the Union and the States?
(a) Article 256 (Obligation of States and the Union)
(b) Article 258 (Power of the Union to confer powers, etc., on States in certain cases)
(c) Article 263 (Provisions with respect to an Inter-State Council)
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 256 emphasizes the obligation of States to comply with Union laws and the Union’s executive power to give directions to States. Article 258 allows the Union to entrust functions to States with their consent. Article 263 provides for the establishment of the Inter-State Council for coordination. All these provisions facilitate administrative cooperation.
39. Which of the following statements regarding the Governor of a State is correct in the context of Centre-State relations?
(a) They are directly elected by the people of the State.
(b) They are the head of the State Government and exercise real executive powers.
(c) They are appointed by the President and act as a link between the Union and the State.
(d) They are members of the State Legislature and participate in its proceedings.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Governor of a State is appointed by the President and holds office at the President’s pleasure. They act as the constitutional head of the State and also serve as a channel of communication and a link between the Union Government and the State Government.
40. Which of the following is a shared responsibility of the Union and the States under the Concurrent List?
(a) Foreign affairs.
(b) Railways.
(c) Forests.
(d) Banking.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Forests are listed in the Concurrent List (Entry 17A), meaning both the Union and the States can legislate on matters related to forests. Foreign affairs and railways are in the Union List, while banking is also primarily a Union subject.
41. The power of the Union to acquire property situated in a State is derived from:
(a) The residuary powers under Article 248.
(b) Entry 42 of the Concurrent List (Acquisition and requisitioning of property).
(c) The inherent sovereign powers of the Union.
(d) A specific agreement with the concerned State.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Entry 42 of the Concurrent List explicitly deals with the acquisition and requisitioning of property, allowing both the Union and the States to legislate on this matter. This is the constitutional basis for the Union’s power to acquire property in a State.
42. Which of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but the proceeds are assigned to the States?
(a) Taxes on the sale and purchase of newspapers.
(b) Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air.
(c) Taxes on advertisements broadcast by radio or television.
(d) Estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea, or air are levied by the Union but their proceeds are assigned to the States in which they are levied (Article 269).
43. The primary function of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in the context of Centre-State financial relations is to:
(a) Recommend the principles of revenue sharing.
(b) Audit the accounts of the Union and the State Governments.
(c) Resolve financial disputes between the Union and the States.
(d) Manage the Consolidated Fund of India and the State Consolidated Funds.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The CAG is an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing the receipts and expenditure of the Union Government, the State Governments, and other government bodies. This audit plays a crucial role in ensuring financial accountability at both levels.
44. Which of the following is a mechanism to address inter-state disputes in India?
(a) Direct negotiation between the concerned States.
(b) Adjudication by the Supreme Court.
(c) Inquiry and recommendation by the Inter-State Council.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Inter-state disputes can be resolved through direct negotiation, through adjudication by the Supreme Court (particularly legal disputes), and through the Inter-State Council’s role in inquiring and advising on such matters.
45. The concept of “single citizenship” in India promotes:
(a) Regionalism and linguistic identity.
(b) A strong sense of national unity and identity.
(c) The autonomy and distinctiveness of the States.
(d) The right of citizens to hold dual citizenship.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: India has a system of single citizenship, meaning every citizen is primarily a citizen of India, irrespective of the State in which they reside. This fosters a sense of national unity and identity over regional or state-specific identities in terms of citizenship.
46. Which of the following is a potential issue arising from the overlapping jurisdiction between the Union and the States under the Concurrent List?
(a) Lack of any legislative power for the States on important subjects.
(b) Inconsistency and conflict between Union and State laws.
(c) Exclusive dominance of the Union in all matters of legislation.
(d) Inability of the Union to legislate on matters of national importance.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Concurrent List allows both the Union and the States to legislate on the same subjects. This can sometimes lead to inconsistencies or conflicts between the laws enacted by the Parliament and the State Legislatures. Article 254 provides a mechanism for resolving such repugnancy, generally favoring the Union law.
47. Which of the following bodies is primarily responsible for discussing and recommending measures on issues affecting the country’s economic and social planning?
(a) The Finance Commission.
(b) The Inter-State Council.
(c) NITI Aayog.
(d) The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) has replaced the Planning Commission and serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India. Its functions include fostering cooperative federalism, developing mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government, and promoting cooperative and competitive federalism.
48. The power of the President to issue directions to State Governments is derived from:
(a) The emergency provisions of the Constitution.
(b) The Union’s executive power extending to matters on which Parliament can legislate, and the obligation of States to comply with Union laws (Article 256).
(c) Specific recommendations made by the Inter-State Council.
(d) The President’s inherent authority as the head of the Union.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 256 of the Constitution lays down the obligation of States and the Union. The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose.
49. Which of the following is a constitutional safeguard for the autonomy of the States in India?
(a) The power of the President to dissolve State Legislatures at will.
(b) The requirement of State consent for amending certain provisions of the Constitution that affect the federal structure (Article 368).
(c) The exclusive power of the Union to legislate on all matters of national importance.
(d) The appointment of Governors by the Union Government without consulting the States.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 368(2) includes a proviso stating that if an amendment seeks to make any change in certain specified articles and schedules (dealing with the federal structure), it shall also require to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolutions passed in that behalf. This is a significant safeguard for State autonomy.
50. In the context of Centre-State relations, the term “devolution” typically refers to:
(a) The process of the Union Government taking over functions previously performed by the States.
(b) The transfer of powers and responsibilities from the Union Government to the State Governments.
(c) The decentralization of powers from the State Governments to local self-governing bodies.
(d) The resolution of disputes between the Union and the States by the judiciary.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: In the context of federalism and Centre-State relations, “devolution” refers to the transfer of powers and responsibilities from a higher level of government (in this case, the Union Government) to a lower level (the State Governments). This is a key aspect of strengthening the autonomy and capacity of the States within a federal system.
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