The Emergency Provisions under the Indian Constitution empower the Union to respond swiftly and effectively during extraordinary situations. These include the National Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360). For UPSC CSE and other competitive exams, this is a high-weightage topic, often tested for both factual accuracy and conceptual clarity.
This post features a carefully selected collection of MCQs on Emergency Provisions, each accompanied by concise and clear explanations. Whether you’re preparing for Prelims or polishing your understanding for Mains, these questions will help reinforce key articles, procedural details, and landmark judicial interpretations.
Emergency Provisions MCQs and Answers
1. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Emergency Provisions?
(a) Part XIV (Services under the Union and the States)
(b) Part XV (Elections)
(c) Part XVIII (Emergency Provisions)
(d) Part XX (Amendment of the Constitution)
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution, comprising Articles 352 to 360, lays down the provisions related to the imposition of different types of emergencies.
2. How many types of emergencies are provided for in the Indian Constitution?
(a) One (National Emergency)
(b) Two (National and State Emergency)
(c) Three (National, State, and Financial Emergency)
(d) Four (Including a Constitutional Emergency in Union Territories)
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergencies: National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency (Article 356, also known as President’s Rule), and Financial Emergency (Article 360).
3. A Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 can be made on the grounds of:
- War
- External aggression
- Internal disturbance
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d) Explanation: Initially, a National Emergency could be declared on all three grounds. However, after the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, “internal disturbance” was replaced by “armed rebellion” as a ground for the proclamation of a National Emergency.
4. What is the maximum period for which a Proclamation of National Emergency can remain in force initially without parliamentary approval?
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) Indefinitely
Answer: (a)
Explanation: A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If not approved, it ceases to operate.
5. Once approved by both Houses of Parliament, a Proclamation of National Emergency remains in force for:
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) Indefinitely
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Once approved by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament by a special majority, a Proclamation of National Emergency remains in force for six months. It can be extended for further periods of six months at a time with the approval of Parliament through similar resolutions.
6. A resolution for the continuance of a Proclamation of National Emergency must be passed by:
(a) A simple majority of the total membership of each House.
(b) A simple majority of the members present and voting in each House.
(c) A special majority (two-thirds of the members present and voting) in each House.
(d) A special majority (majority of the total membership of each House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, made the procedure for the continuance of a National Emergency more stringent. It now requires a special majority, which means a majority of the total membership of each House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
7. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency?
(a) Article 14 and Article 19
(b) Article 20 and Article 21
(c) Article 22 and Article 25
(d) Article 29 and Article 30
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 359(1) allows for the suspension of fundamental rights during a National Emergency, except for the rights guaranteed by Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (protection of life and personal liberty), which cannot be suspended. This was a significant change brought about by the 44th Amendment Act.
8. What is the ground for the proclamation of a State Emergency (President’s Rule) under Article 356?
(a) Financial instability of the State.
(b) Breakdown of constitutional machinery in the State.
(c) External aggression against the State.
(d) Internal armed rebellion within the State.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: President’s Rule can be proclaimed in a State if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This typically implies a breakdown of the constitutional machinery.
9. A Proclamation of State Emergency (President’s Rule) must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Six months
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A Proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by resolutions passed by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. If not approved, it ceases to operate.
10. What is the maximum period for which a Proclamation of State Emergency (President’s Rule) can ordinarily remain in force?
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) Three years
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Initially, President’s Rule could continue indefinitely with parliamentary approval every six months. However, the 44th Amendment Act limited the total period for which it can remain in force to one year, unless certain conditions are met (e.g., a National Emergency is in operation or the Election Commission certifies difficulties in holding elections). It can be extended beyond one year, but not exceeding three years in total, with further parliamentary approvals and the satisfaction of specific conditions.
11. A resolution approving the continuance of President’s Rule requires:
(a) A simple majority of the members present and voting in each House.
(b) A simple majority of the total membership of each House.
(c) A special majority (two-thirds of the members present and voting) in each House.
(d) A special majority (majority of the total membership of each House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).
Answer: (a)
Explanation: A resolution approving the proclamation of President’s Rule and its continuance requires only a simple majority of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament. This is a less stringent requirement compared to the continuance of a National Emergency.
12. During President’s Rule in a State, the legislative powers of the State Legislature are exercised by:
(a) The Governor of the State.
(b) The President of India.
(c) The Parliament.
(d) A specially constituted body by the President.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: When President’s Rule is in operation in a State, the legislative powers of the State Legislature are exercised by the Parliament. The Parliament can delegate this power to the President or any other authority specified by them.
13. Under which article of the Constitution is a Financial Emergency proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 365
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if they are satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened.
14. A Proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) Indefinitely
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A Proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by resolutions passed by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
15. Once approved by both Houses of Parliament, a Proclamation of Financial Emergency remains in force for:
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) Indefinitely until revoked.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Once approved by both Houses of Parliament, a Proclamation of Financial Emergency continues to operate indefinitely until it is revoked by a subsequent proclamation by the President. There is no specific maximum period prescribed.
16. A resolution approving the proclamation or continuance of a Financial Emergency requires:
(a) A simple majority of the members present and voting in each House.
(b) A simple majority of the total membership of each House.
(c) A special majority (two-thirds of the members present and voting) in each House.
(d) A special majority (majority of the total membership of each House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).
Answer: (a)
Explanation: A resolution approving the proclamation of a Financial Emergency or its continuance requires only a simple majority of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament.
17. Which of the following fundamental rights is most directly affected by the proclamation of a National Emergency?
(a) Right to equality (Article 14)
(b) Right to freedom of speech and expression (Article 19)
(c) Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
(d) Right to freedom of religion (Article 25)
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 358 automatically suspends the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 19 as soon as a Proclamation of National Emergency is made on the grounds of war or external aggression. For an emergency declared on the ground of armed rebellion, Article 19 can also be suspended under Article 359.
18. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced which of the following changes to the Emergency Provisions?
- Replacement of “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” as a ground for National Emergency.
- Making the suspension of Article 20 and 21 impossible during a National Emergency.
- Requiring a special majority for the continuance of a National Emergency.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act brought about all these significant changes to the Emergency Provisions, making their imposition and continuation more difficult and safeguarding fundamental rights.
19. Which of the following is a safeguard against the misuse of Emergency Provisions?
(a) The power of the President to proclaim an emergency on their own satisfaction.
(b) The requirement of parliamentary approval within a stipulated time.
(c) The ease with which an emergency can be continued indefinitely.
(d) The suspension of all fundamental rights during an emergency.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The requirement that a Proclamation of Emergency must be approved by the Parliament within a specific time frame (one month for National Emergency, two months for State and Financial Emergency) acts as a crucial safeguard against the executive’s arbitrary use of these powers.
20. Under Article 360, during a Financial Emergency, the President can direct:
(a) The reduction of salaries and allowances of all government employees, including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
(b) The suspension of all fundamental rights.
(c) The dissolution of State Legislatures.
(d) The imposition of President’s Rule in all States.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: During a Financial Emergency, the President is empowered to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and the States, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
21. The proclamation of a National Emergency has which of the following effects on Centre-State relations?
(a) The States gain more autonomy.
(b) The Union Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State List.
(c) The financial relations between the Union and the States remain unchanged.
(d) The President can dissolve State Legislatures.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: During a National Emergency, Article 250 empowers the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List. This significantly alters the normal distribution of legislative powers, giving the Union greater authority.
22. The power to revoke a Proclamation of Emergency rests with:
(a) Both Houses of Parliament by a simple majority.
(b) The President.
(c) The Supreme Court.
(d) A resolution passed by the Inter-State Council.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A Proclamation of Emergency can be revoked by a subsequent proclamation issued by the President. The 44th Amendment also introduced a provision where the Lok Sabha can pass a resolution by a simple majority disapproving the Proclamation, which would then compel the President to revoke it.
23. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to lead to the proclamation of a Financial Emergency?
(a) A political crisis leading to the collapse of a coalition government at the Centre.
(b) A severe economic downturn leading to a threat to the financial stability of the country.
(c) An outbreak of widespread internal violence and unrest.
(d) An external military aggression posing a threat to national security.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A Financial Emergency is specifically related to a threat to the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory. A severe economic crisis would be the most direct trigger for such a proclamation.
24. The concept of “failure of constitutional machinery” in a State (Article 356) can include situations where:
- No party is able to form a majority government after elections.
- The State Government wilfully disobeys the directions of the Union Government.
- There is large-scale violence and breakdown of law and order despite the State Government’s efforts.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The “failure of constitutional machinery” is a broad term that can encompass various scenarios where the governance of the State cannot be carried out in accordance with the Constitution. This includes a hung assembly, wilful disobedience of Union directions, and a breakdown of law and order that the State government is unable to control.
25. Which of the following rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended upon the proclamation of a National Emergency declared on the grounds of war or external aggression?
(a) All six freedoms mentioned in Article 19.
(b) Only the right to freedom of speech and expression.
(c) Only the rights related to assembly and association.
(d) Only the rights related to movement and residence.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 358 states that when a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the six freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended for the duration of the emergency.
26. The power of judicial review extends to the Proclamation of Emergency. Which of the following principles has the Supreme Court laid down in this regard?
(a) The President’s satisfaction is final and cannot be questioned.
(b) The Proclamation can be reviewed on grounds of mala fide intention or if it was based on wholly irrelevant or extraneous grounds.
(c) The judiciary can examine the wisdom and necessity of the Proclamation.
(d) The Proclamation is subject to review only if it violates the basic structure of the Constitution.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: While initially the President’s satisfaction was considered subjective, the Supreme Court has held that the Proclamation of Emergency is subject to judicial review, particularly if it is alleged to be based on mala fide intentions or wholly irrelevant or extraneous grounds.
27. Which of the following is a consequence of the proclamation of President’s Rule in a State?
(a) The State Legislature is dissolved.
(b) The Governor administers the State on behalf of the President.
(c) The fundamental rights of the residents of the State are suspended.
(d) The financial autonomy of the State is enhanced.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: During President’s Rule, the Governor acts as the representative of the President and administers the State. The State Legislature may be suspended or dissolved, and the Parliament exercises legislative powers for the State. Fundamental rights are not automatically suspended unless a National Emergency is also in operation.
28. The provision for a Financial Emergency has been invoked in India:
(a) Once, in 1991.
(b) Twice, in the 1970s and 1990s.
(c) Never so far.
(d) Frequently during periods of economic instability.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Although India has faced economic challenges at various times, the provision for a Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been invoked.
29. A resolution for the disapproval of a Proclamation of National Emergency can be moved in the Lok Sabha by:
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The Prime Minister.
(c) Any member of the House with the support of at least ten percent of the total members of the House.
(d) The President.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act introduced a mechanism for parliamentary control over the continuation of a National Emergency. If a resolution disapproving the Proclamation is moved by any member of the Lok Sabha with the support of at least one-tenth of the total members of the House and is passed by a simple majority, it compels the President to revoke the emergency.
30. Which of the following is a limitation on the Parliament’s power to legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency?
(a) The laws made by Parliament cease to have effect immediately after the emergency ends.
(b) The Parliament can only legislate with the consent of the State Legislature.
(c) The laws made by Parliament continue to be in force indefinitely.
(d) The Parliament can only legislate on State List subjects that are directly related to the emergency.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 250(2) states that laws made by Parliament on State List subjects during a National Emergency cease to have effect six months after the emergency ceases to operate, except for things done or omitted to be done under those laws.
31. The power of the President to promulgate Ordinances is co-terminus with the power of the Parliament to legislate. During a National Emergency, this power extends to:
(a) Only subjects in the Union List.
(b) Subjects in the Union and Concurrent Lists.
(c) All subjects, including those in the State List.
(d) Only subjects directly related to the grounds of the emergency.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: During a National Emergency, the President’s power to promulgate Ordinances under Article 123 extends to all subjects on which the Parliament has the power to make laws, which includes the State List by virtue of Article 250.
32. Which of the following is a key difference between a National Emergency and a State Emergency?
(a) The grounds for proclamation.
(b) The requirement for parliamentary approval.
(c) The impact on fundamental rights.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: National Emergency (Article 352) is proclaimed on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion and has significant implications for fundamental rights and Centre-State legislative relations, requiring a special majority for continuance. State Emergency (Article 356) is proclaimed on the ground of failure of constitutional machinery in a State, has a different parliamentary approval process (simple majority), and a more limited impact primarily on the governance of the affected State. Financial Emergency (Article 360) is based on financial instability.
33. The concept of “armed rebellion” as a ground for National Emergency implies:
(a) Widespread public protests and civil disobedience.
(b) Violent uprising involving the use of weapons against the state.
(c) Political instability and frequent changes in government.
(d) Cross-border terrorism sponsored by external forces.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: “Armed rebellion,” as introduced by the 44th Amendment, specifically refers to a serious internal situation involving the use of arms and violence aimed at challenging the authority of the state. It is a more stringent condition than the original “internal disturbance.”
34. During a State Emergency, the President can assume the powers vested in:
- The Governor of the State.
- The State Government.
- Any other executive authority in the State.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Under Article 356(1)(a), the President can assume to themselves all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or any body or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State.
35. Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of a Financial Emergency?
(a) Directions by the President to reduce salaries of government employees.
(b) Reservation of money bills passed by State Legislatures for the consideration of the President.
(c) Suspension of fundamental rights, except Article 20 and 21.
(d) Directions by the President for the reduction of salaries of High Court and Supreme Court Judges.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: A Financial Emergency under Article 360 primarily deals with financial measures. The suspension of fundamental rights (except Article 20 and 21) is a consequence of a National Emergency under Article 359, not a Financial Emergency.
36. The satisfaction of the President for proclaiming an emergency is based on:
(a) The opinion of the Prime Minister alone.
(b) The advice of the Council of Ministers.
(c) A resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament.
(d) A report from the Governor (in the case of State Emergency) or other information.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 74 mandates that the President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers. Therefore, the President’s satisfaction in proclaiming any type of emergency is based on this advice.
37. Which of the following statements regarding the revocation of a National Emergency is correct?
(a) It requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
(b) It can be done by the President through a subsequent proclamation.
(c) It can only be done after a resolution of disapproval is passed by the Lok Sabha.
(d) It requires the consent of a majority of the State Legislatures.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The President has the power to revoke a Proclamation of National Emergency by issuing another proclamation. The 44th Amendment also provided a mechanism for the Lok Sabha to compel revocation through a resolution of disapproval.
38. During a National Emergency, the tenure of the Lok Sabha can be extended by law for a period not exceeding:
(a) One year at a time.
(b) Six months at a time.
(c) The duration of the emergency plus six months.
(d) Three years in total.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 83(2) allows the Parliament by law to extend the duration of the Lok Sabha for a period not exceeding one year at a time during a Proclamation of National Emergency. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
39. The concept of “constitutional emergency” is:
(a) Synonymous with Financial Emergency.
(b) The formal term for President’s Rule under Article 356.
(c) Not explicitly used in the Constitution, but often refers to a breakdown of constitutional machinery.
(d) A distinct fourth type of emergency that can be proclaimed in Union Territories.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The term “constitutional emergency” is not formally used in the Constitution. However, it is a common way to refer to the situation under Article 356 (President’s Rule) which arises due to the failure of the constitutional machinery in a State.
40. Which of the following is a judicial pronouncement that has strengthened the safeguards against the misuse of Article 356?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati case.
(b) Minerva Mills case.
(c) S.R. Bommai case.
(d) Maneka Gandhi case.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: In the S.R. Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court laid down significant guidelines and limitations on the exercise of power under Article 356, emphasizing judicial review and the need for cogent and relevant material to justify the proclamation of President’s Rule.
41. During a National Emergency, the executive power of the Union extends to:
(a) Only matters in the Union List.
(b) Matters in the Union and Concurrent Lists.
(c) Giving directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised.
(d) Taking over all executive functions of the States.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 353(1)(a) states that while a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised.
42. The proclamation of an Emergency can be challenged in the Supreme Court on the ground that:
(a) The President’s assessment of the situation was incorrect.
(b) The Council of Ministers’ advice was based on insufficient information.
(c) The Proclamation was made for extraneous or mala fide reasons.
(d) The policy objectives behind the Proclamation were not sound.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The judiciary generally does not interfere with the executive’s assessment of the situation warranting an emergency unless there are clear grounds of mala fide intention or if the decision was based on entirely irrelevant factors.
43. Which of the following is a potential impact of a prolonged Financial Emergency?
(a) Enhancement of the financial autonomy of the States.
(b) Increased control of the Union over the financial resources of the States.
(c) Automatic suspension of all taxes levied by the Union and the States.
(d) Imposition of a uniform economic policy across all States.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: During a Financial Emergency, the Union Government gains greater control over the financial affairs of the States through the power to issue directions, including those related to the reduction of salaries and the reservation of money bills.
44. The power of the Governor to reserve a State bill for the President’s consideration is enhanced during a:
(a) National Emergency.
(b) State Emergency (President’s Rule).
(c) Financial Emergency.
(d) This power remains unaffected by emergencies.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 360(3) states that during a Financial Emergency, the President may issue directions requiring all money bills or other financial bills to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State. This gives the Union greater scrutiny over State finances during such times.
45. The suspension of fundamental rights under Article 359 requires:
(a) An automatic process upon the proclamation of emergency.
(b) A separate order by the President specifying the rights to be suspended.
(c) Approval by a special majority in Parliament.
(d) The consent of the Supreme Court.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 359(1) provides that the President may, by order, declare that the right to move any court for the enforcement of such of the fundamental rights (except Articles 20 and 21) as may be specified in the order, and all proceedings pending in any court for the enforcement of the rights so specified, shall remain suspended for the period during which the Proclamation is in force or for a shorter period.
46. Which of the following is a ground on which a Proclamation of National Emergency can be revoked by the President even if it has been approved by Parliament?
(a) A change in the political party in power at the Centre.
(b) A significant improvement in the situation that led to the emergency.
(c) A resolution passed by a simple majority in either House of Parliament.
(d) A directive from the Supreme Court.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The President’s power to revoke an emergency proclamation is based on their satisfaction that the situation necessitating the emergency no longer exists. A significant improvement in the circumstances would be a valid ground for revocation.
47. During a State Emergency, the Parliament can delegate its legislative powers over the State to:
(a) The Governor of the State.
(b) The President of India.
(c) Any other authority specified by it.
(d) A committee of Members of Parliament.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 357(1)(a) allows the Parliament, while it is in session, to confer on the President the power of the State Legislature to make laws for the State and to authorize the President to delegate, subject to such conditions as they may think fit to impose, the power so conferred to any other authority to be specified by them in that behalf.
48. The Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
(a) The Weimar Constitution of Germany.
(b) The Constitution of the United States.
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935.
(d) The Constitution of Canada.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution have their roots in the Government of India Act, 1935, which also contained provisions for dealing with emergency situations.
49. A proclamation of National Emergency can be made by the President only after receiving:
(a) A resolution passed by the Lok Sabha.
(b) A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha.
(c) A written request from the Cabinet.
(d) A report from the Governor.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act made it mandatory that the President shall not issue a Proclamation of National Emergency unless the decision of the Union Cabinet to that effect is communicated to them in writing. This was aimed at preventing unilateral decisions by the Prime Minister.
50. Which of the following is a potential criticism of the Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution?
(a) They are too rigid and difficult to invoke.
(b) They grant excessive powers to the executive, potentially undermining federalism and fundamental rights.
(c) They lack sufficient mechanisms for parliamentary control and judicial review.
(d) They have been invoked too frequently and without sufficient justification.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A significant criticism of the Emergency Provisions is that they can concentrate substantial power in the hands of the executive, potentially leading to the erosion of State autonomy and the curtailment of fundamental rights if not used judiciously and with adequate safeguards. While safeguards have been strengthened over time, the potential for misuse remains a concern for many constitutional experts and civil liberties advocates.
Emergency Provisions are not just about memorizing articles—they test your understanding of India’s constitutional flexibility and limits of federalism. Practicing these MCQs with explanations ensures you’re ready to tackle even the trickiest questions on this topic in any exam.
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