Indian Polity Most Probable MCQs for UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2025

1. Consider the following statements regarding the election of the President of India:

1. The Electoral College includes nominated members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

2. The value of each MLA’s vote is uniform across all states.

3. A candidate requires a majority of more than 50% of the votes to be elected.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the Electoral College does not include nominated members of the State Legislative Assemblies. Statement 2 is incorrect because the value of each MLA’s vote varies from state to state. The text does not explicitly mention the majority requirement, but presidential elections use a system of proportional representation with a single transferable vote, not a simple majority.

2. Which of the following best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) A trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

Answer: (d) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

Explanation: The Polar Code is specifically related to the safety of ships in polar waters.

3. The Constitution of India empowers which of the following to punish for contempt of court?

1. The Supreme Court

2. The High Courts

3. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: The Constitution empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt. The Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

4. Consider the following statements regarding a Constitution Amendment Bill:

1. It requires the prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. The President of India is obligated to give his/her assent to it.

3. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: A Constitution Amendment Bill does not require prior recommendation of the President of India, but it is obligatory for the President to give his/her assent. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The Lok Sabha has the exclusive power to pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. The power to impeach the President is vested in both houses of the Parliament.

6. What does the anti-defection law in India specify?

1. A nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The presiding officer has to decide a defection case within a specific time-frame.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The anti-defection law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party after six months of being appointed to the House. However, the law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

7. Consider the following statements:

1. The Attorney General of India is the only officer of the Government allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements are incorrect. The Solicitor General of India is also allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. The Attorney General of India does not necessarily resign when the government which appointed him resigns.

8. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

2. Mandamus will not lie against a Government Company.

3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty, and any public-minded person can be a petitioner for Quo Warranto. However, Mandamus can lie against a Government Company.

9. Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.

2. Every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.

3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation: The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission has seamless portability across the country. However, it is not mandatory for private and public hospitals to adopt it, and while it aims for universal health coverage, it is not mandatory for every citizen to be a part of it.

10. Consider the following statements about the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

1. The election of the Deputy Speaker is held on such date as the Speaker may fix.

2. The election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4. The motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The election of the Deputy Speaker is held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House. However, there is no mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party and the well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the member of the house and duly seconded by another member.

11. Under the Indian Constitution, the concentration of wealth violates:

(a) the Right to Equality

(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) the Concept of Welfare

Answer: (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy, particularly Article 39(c), aim to prevent the concentration of wealth.

12. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

(a) Legal right available to citizens only

(b) Legal right available to any person

(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Answer: (b) Legal right available to any person

Explanation: The Right to Property is a legal right available to any person. It is no longer a Fundamental Right.

13. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

(a) A Democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer: (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

Explanation: On 26th January, 1950, India was a Sovereign Democratic Republic. The terms ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ were added later by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.

14. Constitutional government means:

(a) a representative government of a nation with a federal structure

(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Explanation: A constitutional government is defined by its limitations as per the constitution.

15. With reference to India, the terms ‘HaIbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to:

(a) dance forms of Northwest India

(b) musical instruments

(d) tribal languages

Answer: (d) tribal languages

Explanation: HaIbi, Ho and Kui are tribal languages spoken in India.

16. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.

2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are not titles under Article 18(1), Padma Awards were suspended more than once, and there is no restriction on the number of Bharat Ratna Awards in a particular year.

17. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award:

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.

2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.

3. Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Tiger Woods was the first winner, and Roger Federer has received the award the most times. However, the award was not mostly received by Formula One players.

19. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:

1. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.

2. The Finance Commission recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

3. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: The Finance Commission is indeed constituted by the President under Article 280, and it recommends principles governing grants-in-aid. However, its recommendations are advisory, not binding, on the government.

20. Which of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is/are correct?

1. He/She is the highest law officer of the country.

2. He/She is a full-time government servant.

3. He/She must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The Attorney General is the highest law officer and must be qualified to be a Supreme Court Judge. However, he/she is not a full-time government servant and does not have a fixed tenure.

21. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties with the consent of:

(a) All the States

(b) Majority of States

(d) None of the States

Answer: (d) None of the States

Explanation: Parliament can make laws for implementing international treaties for the whole or any part of India without the consent of any state.

22. Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s rule in the State.

2. Appointing the Ministers.

3. Returning a Money Bill for reconsideration of the State Legislature.

4. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 4 only

Explanation: The Governor’s discretionary powers include sending a report for President’s rule and reserving bills for the President’s consideration. Appointing Ministers is done on the advice of the Chief Minister, and a Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration.

23. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?

1. The CAG is appointed by the President of India.

2. The CAG submits his/her audit reports to the President of India.

3. The reports of the CAG are considered by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All three statements are correct. The CAG is appointed by the President, submits reports to the President, and these reports are considered by the Public Accounts Committee.

24. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Fundamental Duties in India?

1. Fundamental duties were originally a part of the Constitution of India.

2. Fundamental duties are enforceable by the courts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were not originally part of the Constitution; they were added later by the 42nd Amendment. They are also not directly enforceable by the courts.

25. Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:

1. It is an all-India body dealing with elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President.

2. It is an all-India body dealing with elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Election Commission of India conducts elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President, as well as to the Parliament and State Legislatures.

26. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India?

1. The NHRC is a statutory body.

2. The NHRC can investigate complaints of human rights violations only if the event occurred within one year of the complaint.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The NHRC is a statutory body. However, it can investigate complaints of human rights violations, and there is no strict one-year limitation period, though delays can affect admissibility.

27. Consider the following statements regarding the Panchayati Raj Institutions:

1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for reservation of seats for women in all tiers of Panchayats.

2. Elections to Panchayats are supervised by the State Election Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The 73rd Amendment provides for reservation of seats for women, and elections to Panchayats are indeed supervised by the State Election Commission.

28. Which of the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is/are correct?

1. The DPSPs are enforceable by the courts.

2. The DPSPs aim to create a ‘welfare state’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: DPSPs are not enforceable by the courts, but they do aim to create a welfare state.

29. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Supreme Court of India:

1. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.

2. The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

3. The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All three statements are correct. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in federal disputes, can issue writs, and is the highest court of appeal.

30. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the ordinance-making power of the President of India?

1. The President can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session.

2. An ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The President can promulgate an ordinance when either or both Houses are not in session, and an ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament.

31. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament other than a Minister.

2. Every private member’s bill needs the support of the ruling party to be passed in the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: A private member’s bill is indeed presented by a member other than a minister. However, it does not necessarily need the ruling party’s support to be passed.

32. Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of the President of India:

1. The charges can be initiated in either House of Parliament.

2. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Impeachment charges can be initiated in either House, and nominated members can participate.

33. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Council of Ministers in India?

1. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the House of the People.

2. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The 15% limit is correct. However, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.

34. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Governor of a State:

1. The Governor can nominate one member to the State Legislative Assembly from the Anglo-Indian community.

2. The Governor can reserve a Bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The power to nominate members from the Anglo-Indian community has been removed. The Governor can reserve a Bill for the President’s consideration.

35. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the State Public Service Commission?

1. The Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State.

2. The Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by the President of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Chairman and members are appointed by the Governor but can only be removed by the President.

36. Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency provisions in the Constitution of India:

1. The President can declare a National Emergency only on the written request of the Cabinet.

2. A proclamation of National Emergency automatically suspends the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The written request requirement is correct. However, Article 32 is not automatically suspended; Article 359 allows the President to suspend the enforcement of certain Fundamental Rights.

37. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Union Territories in India?

1. All Union Territories have a Legislative Assembly.

2. The Parliament can make laws for the Union Territories.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: Not all Union Territories have a Legislative Assembly. The Parliament can make laws for the Union Territories.

38. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?

1. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.

2. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities submits his/her report to the Parliament of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The Special Officer is appointed by the President but submits the report to the President, who then places it before Parliament.

39. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions related to Scheduled Areas in the Constitution of India:

1. The President is empowered to declare an area as a Scheduled Area.

2. The Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas has to submit a report to the President annually, regarding the administration of such areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

40. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)?

1. The NCSC is a constitutional body.

2. The NCSC has the power to investigate complaints relating to the deprivation of the rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

41. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)?

1. The NCST was carved out of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

2. The NCST has the power to advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of the Scheduled Tribes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

42. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General for the Government of a State:

1. He/She is appointed by the Governor of the State.

2. He/She can participate in the proceedings of the State Legislature without the right to vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

43. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Advocate General of a State?

1. The Advocate General of a State is appointed by the Governor of the State.

2. The Advocate General of a State holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

44. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of a State:

1. The Finance Commission of a State is constituted by the Governor of the State.

2. The Finance Commission of a State determines the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats and the Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

45. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the State Election Commission?

1. The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities.

2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

46. Consider the following statements regarding the High Court of a State:

1. The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India.

2. A person who has been a Judge of a High Court can plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: High Court judges are appointed by the President. However, a person who has been a Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court and other High Courts.

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the subordinate courts in a State?

1. The control over subordinate courts in the State, including postings and promotions of persons belonging to the judicial service of the State, is vested in the High Court of the State.

2. The Governor of the State makes appointments of persons to the judicial service of the State in consultation with the State Public Service Commission and the High Court of the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The High Court controls subordinate courts. The Governor appoints persons to the judicial service in consultation with the High Court, not the State Public Service Commission.

48. Consider the following statements regarding the Advocate General for the Government of a State:

1. He/She is appointed by the Governor of the State.

2. He/She can participate in the proceedings of the State Legislature without the right to vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

49. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Advocate General of a State?

1. The Advocate General of a State is appointed by the Governor of the State.

2. The Advocate General of a State holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

50. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of a State:

1. The Finance Commission of a State is constituted by the Governor of the State.

2. The Finance Commission of a State determines the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats and the Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

51. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the State Election Commission?

1. The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities.

2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

52. Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):

1. The NGT was established under a Constitutional provision.

2. The NGT is mandated to dispose of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The NGT was established under an Act of Parliament, not a Constitutional provision. The 6-month disposal mandate is correct.

53. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Information Commission (CIC)?

1. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.

2. The CIC can order an inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds to suspect a contravention of the Right to Information Act, 2005.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

54. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Women (NCW):

1. The NCW is a statutory body.

2. The NCW can recommend to the government steps to be taken to improve the condition of women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

55. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?

1. The CVC is a statutory body.

2. The CVC is responsible for inquiring into offences alleged to have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 by certain categories of public servants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

56. Consider the following statements regarding the National Investigation Agency (NIA):

1. The NIA is a central agency to combat terrorism.

2. The NIA functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

57. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?

1. The CBI is not a statutory body.

2. The CBI is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

58. Consider the following statements regarding the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):

1. The NDMA is a statutory body.

2. The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The NDMA is a statutory body, but the Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson, not the President.

59. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Development Council (NDC)?

1. The NDC is not a constitutional body.

2. The NDC is presided over by the Prime Minister of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

60. Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog:

1. The NITI Aayog is a constitutional body.

2. The NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The NITI Aayog is not a constitutional body; it is an executive body created by the government. It did replace the Planning Commission.

61. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Inter-State Council?

1. The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body.

2. The Inter-State Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The Inter-State Council is a statutory body, not a constitutional body, and it is chaired by the Prime Minister.

62. Consider the following statements regarding the Zonal Councils:

1. The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies.

2. The Zonal Councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination between States, Union Territories, and the Centre.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

63. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?

1. The Public Accounts Committee is constituted by the Parliament every year.

2. The Public Accounts Committee examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

64. Consider the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee of the Parliament:

1. The Estimates Committee is constituted by the Parliament every year.

2. The Estimates Committee examines the budget estimates of the government and suggests economies in public expenditure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

65. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Committee on Public Undertakings of the Parliament?

1. The Committee on Public Undertakings is constituted by the Parliament every year.

2. The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports and accounts of public undertakings.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

66. Consider the following statements regarding the privileges of the Parliament:

1. The privileges of the Parliament are defined in the Constitution of India.

2. The Parliament can codify its privileges by making a law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The privileges are not exhaustively defined in the Constitution, and the Parliament can codify them.

67. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the anti-defection law in India?

1. The anti-defection law was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act.

2. The anti-defection law specifies the circumstances under which a legislator can be disqualified on the ground of defection.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

68. Consider the following statements regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor of a State:

1. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only when the State Legislature is not in session.

2. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor has the same force and effect as an Act of the State Legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

69. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India?

1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the constitution of Gram Sabhas in villages.

2. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Panchayats.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

70. Consider the following statements regarding the Municipalities in India:

1. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the constitution of Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils, and Municipal Corporations.

2. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the reservation of seats for women in the Municipalities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

71. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Election Commission of India?

1. The Election Commission of India is a permanent constitutional body.

2. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

72. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

1. The CAG is appointed by the President of India.

2. The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

73. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Attorney General of India?

1. The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the Union government.

2. The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

74. Consider the following statements regarding the Advocate General of a State:

1. The Advocate General of a State is the highest law officer of the State government.

2. The Advocate General of a State has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of the State Legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

75. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?

1. The UPSC is a constitutional body.

2. The UPSC is responsible for conducting examinations for recruitment to the All-India Services and Central Services.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

76. Consider the following statements regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC):

1. The SPSC is a constitutional body.

2. The SPSC is responsible for conducting examinations for recruitment to the State Services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

77. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Finance Commission?

1. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body.

2. The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

78. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):

1. The NCSC is a constitutional body.

2. The NCSC monitors all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

79. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST):

1. The NCST is a constitutional body.

2. The NCST examines and monitors all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

80. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):

1. The NHRC is a statutory body.

2. The NHRC is chaired by a former Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

81. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC)?

1. The SHRC is a statutory body.

2. The Chairperson of the SHRC is a former Chief Justice of a High Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

82. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission (CIC):

1. The CIC is a statutory body.

2. The CIC is constituted by the Central Government through a Gazette Notification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

83. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the State Information Commission (SIC)?

1. The SIC is a statutory body.

2. The SIC is constituted by the State Government through a Gazette Notification.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

84. Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):

1. The NGT is a statutory body.

2. The NGT is established for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

85. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):

1. The NDMA is a statutory body.

2. The NDMA is responsible for laying down the policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

86. Consider the following statements regarding the National Development Council (NDC):

1. The NDC is an extra-constitutional body.

2. The NDC is the apex body for decision-making in planning matters in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

87. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the NITI Aayog:

1. The NITI Aayog is an extra-constitutional body.

2. The NITI Aayog serves as a think-tank of the Government of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

88. Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-State Council:

1. The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body.

2. The Inter-State Council is established to deal with disputes between States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The Inter-State Council is a statutory body, but it is established to deal with disputes between States.

89. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Zonal Councils:

1. The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies.

2. The Zonal Councils are established to promote inter-State cooperation and coordination.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

90. Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC):

1. The PAC is a committee of selected members of Parliament.

2. The PAC examines the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts of the Union Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

91. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Estimates Committee:

1. The Estimates Committee is a committee of selected members of Parliament.

2. The Estimates Committee examines the budget estimates of the government and reports on ‘what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency or administrative reform, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

92. Consider the following statements regarding the Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU):

1. The COPU is a committee of selected members of Parliament.

2. The COPU examines the reports and accounts of public undertakings and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on Public Undertakings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

93. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the privileges of Parliament?

1. Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament and parliamentary committees, so that they can effectively discharge their functions.

2. Parliamentary privileges are codified in the Constitution of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The first statement is correct, but parliamentary privileges are not fully codified in the Constitution.

94. Consider the following statements regarding the anti-defection law:

1. The anti-defection law was inserted in the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.

2. The anti-defection law lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection to another political party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

95. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the ordinance-making power of the President?

1. The President can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session.

2. An ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The President can promulgate an ordinance when either or both Houses are not in session, and it has the same force as an Act.

96. Consider the following statements regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor:

1. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only when the State Legislature is not in session.

2. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor has the same force and effect as an Act of the State Legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

97. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)?

1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for a three-tier system of Panchayats in every State.

2. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Panchayats.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

98. Consider the following statements regarding the Municipalities:

1. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the constitution of Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils and Municipal Corporations.

2. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for reservation of seats for women in the Municipalities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Election Commission of India?

1. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India.

2. The Election Commission of India conducts elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

100. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

1. The CAG is appointed by the President of India.

2. The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments and also the bodies substantially financed by them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

101. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Fundamental Rights in India?

1. Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be restricted under any circumstances.

2. Fundamental Rights are justiciable.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: Fundamental Rights are not absolute and can be restricted under reasonable circumstances. They are, however, justiciable, meaning they can be enforced by the courts.

102. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country.

2. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable by the courts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: DPSPs are fundamental in governance but are not enforceable by the courts.

103. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

1. The Preamble was amended by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

2. The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution and therefore has no legal effect.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The Preamble was amended by the 42nd Amendment. It is considered a part of the Constitution but is not directly enforceable by courts.

104. Consider the following statements regarding the Citizenship of India:

1. The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship.

2. A person can acquire citizenship by birth, descent, registration, naturalization, or incorporation of territory.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

105. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the President of India?

1. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

2. The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

106. Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India:

1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

107. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Prime Minister of India?

1. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.

2. The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

108. Consider the following statements regarding the Council of Ministers:

1. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

2. All ministers are members of either House of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The first statement is correct. A person can be a minister without being a member of either House of Parliament for a maximum period of six months.

109. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Parliament of India?

1. The Parliament consists of the President, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

2. The Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

110. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:

1. The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament.

2. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

111. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Lok Sabha?

1. The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament.

2. The members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

112. Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

1. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.

2. The Speaker presides over the sittings of the Lok Sabha and maintains order.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

113. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the legislative procedure in Parliament?

1. A Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

2. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

114. Consider the following statements regarding the ordinance-making power of the President:

1. The President can promulgate an ordinance when either House of Parliament is not in session.

2. An ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

115. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Judiciary in India?

1. The Judiciary is independent of the executive and the legislature.

2. The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

116. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India:

1. The Supreme Court has original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction.

2. The Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

117. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the High Courts in India?

1. The High Courts are the highest courts in the States.

2. The High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

118. Consider the following statements regarding the subordinate courts:

1. Subordinate courts function under the High Courts.

2. Subordinate courts include district courts and other lower courts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

119. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Governor of a State?

1. The Governor is appointed by the President.

2. The Governor is the constitutional head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

120. Consider the following statements regarding the State Legislature:

1. The State Legislature may be unicameral or bicameral.

2. The State Legislature has the power to make laws for the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

121. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the State Legislative Assembly?

1. The State Legislative Assembly is the lower house of the State Legislature.

2. The members of the State Legislative Assembly are directly elected by the people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

122. Consider the following statements regarding the State Legislative Council:

1. The State Legislative Council is the upper house of the State Legislature.

2. The members of the State Legislative Council are indirectly elected or nominated.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

123. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Chief Minister of a State?

1. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.

2. The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers in the State.

Select the correct answer using thecode given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

124. Consider the following statements regarding the State Council of Ministers:

1. The total number of ministers in the State Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the State Legislative Assembly.

2. All ministers in the State Council of Ministers are members of either House of the State Legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The first statement is correct. A person can be a minister without being a member of the State Legislature for a maximum period of six months.

125. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Advocate General of a State?

1. The Advocate General is the highest law officer of the State government.

2. The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

126. Consider the following statements regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC):

1. The SPSC conducts examinations for appointments to State services.

2. The Chairman and members of the SPSC are appointed by the Governor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

127. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the State Election Commission?

1. The State Election Commission conducts elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities.

2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

128. Consider the following statements regarding the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs):

1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the constitution of Panchayats.

2. Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels are constituted in the States.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

129. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Gram Sabha?

1. The Gram Sabha is the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system.

2. The Gram Sabha consists of the registered voters of the village.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

130. Consider the following statements regarding the Municipalities:

1. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the constitution of Municipalities.

2. Municipalities are constituted for transitional areas, smaller urban areas, and larger urban areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

131. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Municipal Corporation?

1. The Municipal Corporation is constituted for larger urban areas.

2. The head of the Municipal Corporation is called the Mayor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

132. Consider the following statements regarding the Municipal Council:

1. The Municipal Council is constituted for smaller urban areas.

2. The members of the Municipal Council are elected by the people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

133. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Nagar Panchayat?

1. The Nagar Panchayat is constituted for a transitional area.

2. A transitional area is an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

134. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Territories:

1. Union Territories are administered by the President through an administrator appointed by him/her.

2. Parliament has the power to make laws for the Union Territories.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

135. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Scheduled and Tribal Areas?

1. The President has the power to declare an area as a Scheduled Area.

2. The administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes is the responsibility of the Governor of each State having such areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

136. Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency provisions in the Constitution of India:

1. The President can declare a National Emergency on the grounds of war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

2. During a National Emergency, the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

137. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?

1. The NCBC is a constitutional body.

2. The NCBC examines complaints and the welfare measures in respect of Backward Classes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

138. Consider the following statements regarding the official language:

1. The official language of the Union is Hindi in Devanagari script.

2. English is also recognized as an additional official language.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

139. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the amendment of the Constitution?

1. An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated only in the Parliament.

2. A Constitution Amendment Bill requires a special majority for its passage in each House of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

140. Consider the following statements regarding the basic structure of the Constitution:

1. The basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament.

2. The basic structure doctrine was evolved by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

141. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the sources of the Indian Constitution?

1. The Indian Constitution has borrowed provisions from various other constitutions of the world.

2. The Government of India Act of 1935 has also been a major source of the Indian Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

142. Consider the following statements regarding the features of the Indian Constitution:

1. The Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution in the world.

2. The Indian Constitution provides for a parliamentary form of government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

143. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the federal system in India?

1. India has a federal system of government.

2. The Constitution provides for a division of powers between the Union and the States.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

144. Consider the following statements regarding the integrated judiciary:

1. India has an integrated judicial system.

2. The Supreme Court is at the apex of the judicial system.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

145. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Parliamentary form of government?

1. India has a Parliamentary form of government.

2. In a Parliamentary form of government, the executive is responsible to the legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

146. Consider the following statements regarding the Rule of Law:

1. The concept of Rule of Law is enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

2. The Rule of Law means that no person is above the law and that everyone is subject to the law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

147. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Fundamental Duties?

1. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

2. Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

148. Consider the following statements regarding the Secularism in India:

1. India is a secular state.

2. Secularism in India means equal respect for all religions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

149. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Universal Adult Franchise?

1. India follows the principle of Universal Adult Franchise.

2. Every citizen who is 18 years of age and above has the right to vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

150. Consider the following statements regarding the Single Citizenship:

1. India has the system of Single Citizenship.

2. Every citizen of India enjoys the same rights and privileges throughout the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

151. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Independent Bodies?

1. The Constitution provides for several Independent Bodies.

2. These Independent Bodies are independent of the executive, the legislature, and the judiciary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The Constitution provides for several Independent Bodies, but they are not independent of the judiciary.

152. Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency Provisions:

1. The Constitution contains elaborate Emergency Provisions.

2. Emergency Provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

153. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Three-tier Government?

1. The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government.

2. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts added a third tier of government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

154. Consider the following statements regarding the Cooperative Societies:

1. The Constitution provides for the promotion of Cooperative Societies.

2. Cooperative Societies are voluntary associations of individuals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

155. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.

2. The Directive Principles of State Policy aim at creating a ‘welfare state’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

156. Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights:

1. The Fundamental Rights are borrowed from the US Constitution.

2. The Fundamental Rights are justifiable and enforceable by the courts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

157. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Parliamentary System?

1. The Parliamentary System is borrowed from the British Constitution.

2. In the Parliamentary System, there is a close relationship between the executive and the legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

158. Consider the following statements regarding the Federal System:

1. The Federal System is borrowed from the Canadian Constitution.

2. In a Federal System, there is a division of powers between the centre and the states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

159. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Fundamental Duties?

1. The Fundamental Duties are borrowed from the erstwhile USSR Constitution.

2. The Fundamental Duties inspire citizens to observe basic norms of democratic conduct.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

160. Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency Provisions:

1. The Emergency Provisions are borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany.

2. The Emergency Provisions empower the centre to meet any extraordinary situation effectively.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

161. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Social, Economic, and Political Justice?

1. The concept of Social, Economic, and Political Justice is borrowed from the Russian Revolution.

2. These ideals aim to establish a just society in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

162. Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution:

1. The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is borrowed from the South African Constitution.

2. This provision ensures the sanctity of the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

163. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Election of members of Rajya Sabha?

1. The election procedure of members of Rajya Sabha is borrowed from the South African Constitution.

2. This ensures representation of states in the federal set-up.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

164. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity:

1. The concept of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity is borrowed from the French Revolution.

2. These ideals promote a sense of brotherhood among the citizens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

165. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the suspension of Fundamental Rights during the Emergency?

1. The provision for the suspension of Fundamental Rights during the Emergency is borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany.

2. This provision enables the centre to deal effectively with the crisis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

166. Consider the following statements regarding the procedure established by law:

1. The concept of ‘procedure established by law’ is borrowed from the Japanese Constitution.

2. It implies that law duly enacted by the legislature is valid if it has been followed correctly.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

167. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of ‘Due Process of Law’?

1. The concept of ‘Due Process of Law’ is borrowed from the American Constitution.

2. It implies that the law should be fair, just, and reasonable.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

168. Consider the following statements regarding the Judicial Review:

1. The concept of Judicial Review is borrowed from the American Constitution.

2. Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

169. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Written Constitution?

1. India has a written Constitution.

2. A written Constitution codifies the fundamental laws of the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

170. Consider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary Sovereignty:

1. The concept of Parliamentary Sovereignty is associated with the British Constitution.

2. In a system of Parliamentary Sovereignty, the Parliament is supreme and can make or unmake any law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

171. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Fundamental Rights?

1. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution.

2. Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideals of political democracy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

172. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. Directive Principles are enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution.

2. Directive Principles are meant for promoting the ideals of social and economic democracy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

173. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Fundamental Duties?

1. Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IVA of the Constitution.

2. Fundamental Duties are meant for inculcating a sense of responsibility among the citizens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

174. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Welfare State:

1. The concept of Welfare State is reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

2. A Welfare State is committed to promoting the social and economic well-being of the people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

175. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Judicial Activism?

1. Judicial Activism is the role played by the judiciary in protecting the rights of the people.

2. Judicial Activism involves the judiciary going beyond its traditional role of interpreting and applying the law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

176. Consider the following statements regarding the Public Interest Litigation (PIL):

1. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a legal action initiated in a court of law for the enforcement of public interest.

2. PIL can be filed by any public-spirited citizen.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

177. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Separation of Powers?

1. The doctrine of Separation of Powers implies that the three organs of the government should be separate and independent.

2. The Indian Constitution does not strictly adhere to the doctrine of Separation of Powers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The first statement is an ideal, but in practice, there is some overlap. The second statement is correct.

178. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Checks and Balances:

1. The concept of Checks and Balances is a feature of the Parliamentary System.

2. Checks and Balances ensure that no single organ of the government has absolute power.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The first statement is incorrect. Checks and balances are more prominently associated with the presidential system. The second statement is correct.

179. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Constitutional Supremacy?

1. India follows the principle of Constitutional Supremacy.

2. The Constitution is the supreme law of the land.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

180. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Judicial Independence:

1. Judicial Independence is essential for the judiciary to function impartially.

2. The Constitution provides for various provisions to ensure the independence of the judiciary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

181. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Federalism?

1. India has a federal system of government.

2. In a federal system, there is a division of powers between the centre and the states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

182. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Cooperative Federalism:

1. Cooperative Federalism emphasizes the cooperative and collaborative nature of relations between the centre and the states.

2. India is increasingly moving towards Cooperative Federalism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

183. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Competitive Federalism?

1. Competitive Federalism emphasizes the competitive nature of relations between the centre and the states.

2. Competitive Federalism encourages states to compete with each other to attract investment and resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

184. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Fiscal Federalism:

1. Fiscal Federalism deals with the financial relations between the centre and the states.

2. The Finance Commission plays a crucial role in Fiscal Federalism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

185. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Decentralization?

1. Decentralization is the process of distributing powers and responsibilities to the lower levels of government.

2. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts promote decentralization in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

186. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Good Governance:

1. Good Governance is characterized by transparency, accountability, and responsiveness.

2. Good Governance is essential for the effective functioning of democracy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

187. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Rule of Law?

1. The Rule of Law is a fundamental principle of democracy.

2. The Rule of Law implies that everyone is equal before the law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

188. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Social Justice:

1. Social Justice aims to create a society where there is no discrimination on the basis of caste, creed, religion, sex, etc.

2. The Constitution of India is committed to achieving Social Justice.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

189. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Economic Justice?

1. Economic Justice aims to create a society where there is no concentration of wealth and resources.

2. The Directive Principles of State Policy promote the idea of Economic Justice.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

190. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Political Justice:

1. Political Justice aims to create a society where everyone has equal political rights and opportunities.

2. The Fundamental Rights guarantee Political Justice to the citizens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

191. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Liberty?

1. Liberty means the freedom to do anything.

2. Liberty is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restrictions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The first statement is incorrect; liberty is not absolute.

192. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Equality:

1. Equality means absolute equality in all spheres of life.

2. Equality means equality of opportunity and equality before the law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: The first statement is incorrect; equality doesn’t mean absolute equality in all spheres.

193. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Fraternity?

1. Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood and belonging among the citizens.

2. Fraternity promotes unity and integrity of the nation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

194. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Sovereignty:

1. Sovereignty means the supreme and absolute power of the state.

2. India is a sovereign state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

195. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Democracy?

1. Democracy is a form of government in which the supreme power is vested in the people.

2. India is a democracy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

196. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Republic:

1. A Republic is a form of government in which the head of the state is an elected person.

2. India is a republic.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

197. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Secularism?

1. Secularism means that the state has no religion of its own.

2. India is a secular state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

198. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Socialism:

1. Socialism aims to reduce inequalities in wealth and income.

2. India is a socialist state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: While India has socialist ideals in its policies, it is not strictly defined as a socialist state in the constitutional

199. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Justice?

1. Justice implies fairness and righteousness.

2. Justice includes social, economic, and political dimensions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

200. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Secularism in the Indian context:

1. Secularism in India means the state maintains neutrality towards all religions.

2. The state actively intervenes to promote religious harmony and reform.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

201. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the powers of the President of India?

1. The President is the head of the executive branch of the Union government.

2. The President has the power to appoint the Prime Minister and other ministers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

202. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Parliament of India:

1. The Parliament has the power to make laws on any subject mentioned in the Union List.

2. The Parliament can also make laws on subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

203. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the powers of the Supreme Court of India?

1. The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in India.

2. The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review to declare laws unconstitutional.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

204. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Governor of a State:

1. The Governor is the head of the executive branch of the State government.

2. The Governor has the power to appoint the Chief Minister and other ministers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

205. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the powers of the State Legislature?

1. The State Legislature has the power to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List.

2. The State Legislature can also make laws on subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List, but these laws are subject to the laws made by the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

206. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the High Court of a State:

1. The High Court is the highest court of appeal in the State.

2. The High Court has the power of judicial review to declare State laws unconstitutional.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

207. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Fundamental Rights?

1. Fundamental Rights are enforceable against the State.

2. Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a National Emergency.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

208. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts.

2. Directive Principles are guidelines to be followed by the State while framing policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

209. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Fundamental Duties?

1. Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by the courts.

2. Fundamental Duties are meant to promote patriotism and national unity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

210. Consider the following statements regarding the Amendment of the Constitution:

1. The Constitution can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament.

2. Some provisions of the Constitution can also be amended by a simple majority of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

211. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Federal System in India?

1. India has a strong centre.

2. The states also have significant autonomy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

212. Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency Provisions:

1. During a National Emergency, the centre gains more control over the states.

2. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a National Emergency.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

213. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Judiciary in India?

1. The Judiciary is independent of the executive and the legislature.

2. The Judiciary has the power of judicial review.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

214. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:

1. The Election Commission is responsible for conducting free and fair elections.

2. The Election Commission is an independent constitutional body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

215. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

1. The Comptroller and Auditor General audits the accounts of the government.

2. The Comptroller and Auditor General is an independent constitutional authority.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

216. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Public Service Commission:

1. The Union Public Service Commission conducts examinations for recruitment to the All India Services.

2. The Union Public Service Commission is an independent constitutional body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

217. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Finance Commission?

1. The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.

2. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

218. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission:

1. The National Human Rights Commission is concerned with the protection of human rights.

2. The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

219. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Commission for Women?

1. The National Commission for Women is concerned with the rights of women.

2. The National Commission for Women is a statutory body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

220. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes:

1. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is concerned with the rights of Scheduled Castes.

2. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

221. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?

1. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is concerned with the rights of Scheduled Tribes.

2. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

222. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Backward Classes:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes is concerned with the rights of Backward Classes.

2. The National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

223. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Attorney General of India?

1. The Attorney General is the highest law officer of the Union government.

2. The Attorney General is appointed by the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

224. Consider the following statements regarding the Advocate General of a State:

1. The Advocate General is the highest law officer of the State government.

2. The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

225. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Federalism?

1. India has a federal system of government.

2. In a federal system, there is a division of powers between the centre and the states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

226. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Cooperative Federalism:

1. Cooperative Federalism emphasizes the cooperative and collaborative nature of relations between the centre and the states.

2. India is increasingly moving towards Cooperative Federalism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

227. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Competitive Federalism?

1. Competitive Federalism emphasizes the competitive nature of relations between the centre and the states.

2. Competitive Federalism encourages states to compete with each other to attract investment and resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

228. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Fiscal Federalism:

1. Fiscal Federalism deals with the financial relations between the centre and the states.

2. The Finance Commission plays a crucial role in Fiscal Federalism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

229. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Decentralization?

1. Decentralization is the process of distributing powers and responsibilities to the lower levels of government.

2. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts promote decentralization in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

230. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Good Governance:

1. Good Governance is characterized by transparency, accountability, and responsiveness.

2. Good Governance is essential for the effective functioning of democracy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

231. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the concept of Rule of Law?

1. The Rule of Law is a fundamental principle of democracy.

2. The Rule of Law implies that everyone is equal before the law.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties: 1. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment. 2. Fundamental duties are confined to citizens only. 3. Fundamental duties are enforceable through legal processes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct answer: a

Q17. Consider the following statements:

The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India inserted an Article placing certain State acts in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. 2. All State acts in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India have been immunized from judicial review. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: a

Q18. Consider the following statements:

Under the Constitution of India, only the Parliament has the power to enact a law on the subjects enumerated in the Union List. 2. Under the Constitution of India, the Parliament and the State legislatures have concurrent power to enact laws on the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: c

Q19. In India, the term “Public Affairs” is used only in the Constitution. 2. The Representatives of the people in the Parliament have no role to play in the “Public Affairs”. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: d

Q20. Which of the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are correct? 1. CAG is appointed by the President of India. 2. CAG has the power to audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State. 3. CAG is responsible for compiling the accounts of the Union and each State. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct answer: a

2018

Q1. Right to privacy is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (a) Article 15

(b) Article 19

(d) Article 29

Correct Answer: (c)

Q2. Which of the following are the grounds on which discrimination is prohibited in India? 1. Religion 2. Race 3. Caste 4. Sex 5. Place of birth Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: (d)

Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Rights are claims of the State against the citizens. 2. Rights are claims of the citizens against the State. 3. Rights are privileges incorporated in the Constitution of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)

Q4. Consider the following statements:

Legal Rights are the same as Fundamental Rights. 2. Fundamental Rights in India can be amended by the Parliament by a simple majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (d)

Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Right to Education is a Fundamental Right. 2. The Right to Education is a Fundamental Duty. 3. The Right to Education is a Directive Principle of State Policy. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b)

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the election of the President of India: 1. The members of the Electoral College consist of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. 2. The value of the vote of an MLA varies from State to State. 3. The value of the vote of an MP is the same for all the States. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d)

Q7. Which of the following is/are the essential characteristic/characteristics of a parliamentary form of government? 1. Responsibility of the executive to the legislature. 2. Separation of powers. 3. Rule of law. 4. Sovereignty of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: (c)

Q11. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: c Q12. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: a) An arrangement for minimizing criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all. b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day. c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people. d) A device for strengthening the leadership of the head of the State whose control over the people is immense. Correct answer: c Sources and related content

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: b Q16. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament other than a minister. 2. Recently, a private member’s bill was passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: a Q17. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the ‘Scheduled Areas’ under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India? 1. The Governor of a State has the power to direct that any particular Act of Parliament or the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or shall apply to such Area subject to such exceptions and modifications as he may specify. 2. The Second Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: a Q18. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President. 3. The Prime Minister shall be the Chairman of the National Development Council. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: c Q19. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 contains a provision that an incumbent holding an office of profit is debarred from contesting an election to Parliament. 2. The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term ‘Office of Profit’. 3. The Constitution of India prohibits the members of Parliament from holding any Office of Profit under the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: b Q20. Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the schedule for the conduct of elections. 3. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: d 2017 Q1. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Election Commission of India? 1. Superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls. 2. Holding elections for the offices of the Parliament and State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and the Vice-President. 3. Advising the President on matters relating to disqualifications of MPs. 4. Advising the Governor on matters relating to disqualifications of MLAs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: (a) Q2. Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s rule in the State. 2. Appointing the Ministers. 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President. 4. Making the rules to regulate the procedure of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: (b) Q3. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of each MP is the same for all States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (c) Q4. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A Bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. A Bill amending the Constitution requires a special majority in both the Houses of Parliament and consent of at least one-half of the State Legislatures. 3. In India, the Constitution can be amended only by the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: (c) Q5. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha? 1. The Rajya Sabha has the power to either reject or amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. 3. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Budget. 4. The Rajya Sabha has the power to constitute a Select Committee of the Houses to scrutinize Bills. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Answer: (c) Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Constitutional Government is one which places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State authority. 2. A Constitutional Government is one which places effective restrictions on State authority in the interest of individual liberty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (b) Q7. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the prisons are managed by the State Governments with their own rules and regulations. 2. In India, prisons receive funds from different sources under different heads. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (c) Q11. Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has the power to adjourn the House sine die. 2. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has the power to prorogue the House. 3. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly does not have the power to summon the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: (a) Q12. With reference to the election of the Vice-President of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The members of the Electoral College consist of all the members of both the Houses of Parliament. 2. The value of the vote of each Member of Parliament is the same. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (c) Q13. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties. 2. In India, no law can be made by the Parliament without the consent of the State Legislatures. 3. The Parliament can make laws on any matter of the State List if a proclamation of Emergency is in operation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q14. Consider the following statements with regard to the Supreme Court of India: 1. The Supreme Court of India can hear any appeal against any judgment of any High Court in India. 2. The Supreme Court of India can hear a dispute between the Centre and the States only in its original jurisdiction. 3. The Supreme Court of India has the power to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q15. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q16. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Ministers are individually responsible to the President. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (c) Q17. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed by the President. 2. The CAG is the Chief Accountant and Auditor of the Government of India. 3. The CAG submits his report relating to the accounts of the States to the Governor of the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q18. Consider the following statements: 1. The first Backward Classes Commission was set up in 1953 by the Nehru Government. 2. The Constitution of India does not provide for any reservation for the Backward Classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) 2016 Q1. The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Motions Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: (d) Q2. The power to decide on the disqualification of a member of the Parliament rests with the (a) Speaker (b) President (c) Election Commission (d) Committee of Privileges Correct Answer: (b) Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India nominates members of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Elections to the Council of States are held by open ballot. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) Q4. Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in amending the Constitution. 2. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in the creation of new All India Services. 3. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in the removal of the government. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: (a) Q5. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India cannot be challenged in any court. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) Q6. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power/powers of the Rajya Sabha? 1. To initiate impeachment proceedings against the President. 2. To recommend the creation of new All India Services. 3. To pass a resolution against the National Emergency. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (b) Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q11. Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has the power to adjourn the House sine die. 2. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has the power to prorogue the House. 3. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly does not have the power to summon the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: (a) Q12. Consider the following statements: 1. The first Backward Classes Commission was set up in 1953 by the Nehru Government. 2. The Constitution of India does not provide for any reservation for the Backward Classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) 2015 Q1. Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the schedule for the conduct of elections. 3. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct Answer: (d) Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has the power to adjourn the House sine die. 2. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has the power to prorogue the House. 3. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly does not have the power to summon the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: (a) Q4. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers

continue

with the Lok Sabha in amending the Constitution.
2. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in the creation of new All India Services.
3. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in the removal of the government.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (a)

Q5.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India cannot be challenged in any court.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a)

Q6.
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power/powers of the Rajya Sabha?
1. To initiate impeachment proceedings against the President.
2. To recommend the creation of new All India Services.
3. To pass a resolution against the National Emergency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)

Q7.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (c)

Q11.
Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: (b)

Q12.
With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: (C)

Q13.
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct answer: (c)

Q14.
The Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Equality to its citizens. Which of the following are included in the Right to Equality?
1. Equality before law
2. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
3. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment
4. Abolition of titles
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct answer: (d)

Q15.
Consider the following statements:

1. The main objective of the 73rd and 74th Amendments to the Constitution of India is to make provision for social and economic justice.
2. The National Finance Commission is the main source of income for the rural and urban local government bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: (a)

Q16.
Consider the following statements:

1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India.
2. The Attorney General of India is not a member of either House of Parliament.
3. The Attorney General of India can participate in the proceedings of Parliament.
4. The Attorney General of India is appointed for a fixed term.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct answer: (b)

Q17.
Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India consists of the President and the two Houses.
2. The President is a constituent part of the Parliament.
3. A Money Bill can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct answer: (b)

Q18.
Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has the power to initiate impeachment proceedings against the Vice-President of India.
2. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to participate in the election of the Vice-President of India.
3. The Rajya Sabha has the power to elect the Deputy Chairman of the House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Correct answer: (d)

Q19.
Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the power to certify whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rules Committee.
3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Business Advisory Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct answer: (d)

Q20.
Which of the following are the functions of the Finance Commission of India?
1. To determine the factors governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and the shares of such proceeds receivable by the States.
2. To recommend the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in that State.
4. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in that State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct answer: (d)

2014

Q1.
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by the Courts in India.
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by the Courts in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c)

Q2.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (c)

Q3.
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power/powers of the Rajya Sabha?
1. To initiate impeachment proceedings against the President.
2. To recommend the creation of new All India Services.
3. To pass a resolution against the National Emergency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (b)

Q4.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India cannot be challenged in any court.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a)

Q5.
Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s rule in the State.
2. Appointing the Ministers.
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President.
4. Making the rules to regulate the procedure of the State Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (b)

Q6.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President.
3. The Prime Minister shall be the Chairman of the National Development Council.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct answer: (c)

Q7.
Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 contains a provision that an incumbent holding an office of profit is debarred from contesting an election to Parliament.
2. The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term ‘Office of Profit’.
3. The Constitution of India prohibits the members of Parliament from holding any Office of Profit under the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Correct answer: (b)

Q11. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which (a) All political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government. (b) The Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by a vote of no-confidence. (c) The Government is elected by the Parliament and all the Ministers are members of the Parliament. (d) The Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them through a vote of no-confidence. Correct answer: (b) Q12. Consider the following statements: 1. The main objective of the 73rd and 74th Amendments to the Constitution of India is to make provision for social and economic justice. 2. The National Finance Commission is the main source of income for the rural and urban local government bodies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: (a) Q13. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: (b) Q14. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements : 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: (C) Q15. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 1. The Prime Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet 4. Chief Ministers of the States Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct answer: (c) Q16. The Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Equality to its citizens. Which of the following are included in the Right to Equality? 1. Equality before law 2. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth 3. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment 4. Abolition of titles Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: (d) Q17. Consider the following statements: 1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India. 2. The Attorney General of India is not a member of either House of Parliament. 3. The Attorney General of India can participate in the proceedings of Parliament. 4. The Attorney General of India is appointed for a fixed term. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: (b) Q18. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India consists of the President and the two Houses. 2. The President is a constituent part of the Parliament. 3. A Money Bill can be introduced in either House of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: (b) Q19. Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha has the power to initiate impeachment proceedings against the Vice-President of India. 2. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to participate in the election of the Vice-President of India. 3. The Rajya Sabha has the power to elect the Deputy Chairman of the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct answer: (d) Q20. Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the power to certify whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not. 2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rules Committee. 3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Business Advisory Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: (d) 2013 Q1. Which of the following are the functions of the Finance Commission of India? 1. To determine the factors governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and the shares of such proceeds receivable by the States. 2. To recommend the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in that State. 4. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in that State. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: (d) Q2. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by the Courts in India. 2. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by the Courts in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (c) Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q4. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power/powers of the Rajya Sabha? 1. To initiate impeachment proceedings against the President. 2. To recommend the creation of new All India Services. 3. To pass a resolution against the National Emergency. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (b) Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India cannot be challenged in any court. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) Q6. Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s rule in the State. 2. Appointing the Ministers. 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President. 4. Making the rules to regulate the procedure of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: (b) Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President. 3. The Prime Minister shall be the Chairman of the National Development Council. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: (c) Q11. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 contains a provision that an incumbent holding an office of profit is debarred from contesting an election to Parliament. 2. The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term ‘Office of Profit’. 3. The Constitution of India prohibits the members of Parliament from holding any Office of Profit under the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: (b) Q12. Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the schedule for the conduct of elections. 3. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: (d) Q13. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: (b) Q14. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements : 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: (C) Q15. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 1. The Prime Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet 4. Chief Ministers of the States Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct answer: (c) Q16. The Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Equality to its citizens. Which of the following are included in the Right to Equality? 1. Equality before law 2. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth 3. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment 4. Abolition of titles Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: (d) Q17. Consider the following statements: 1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India. 2. The Attorney General of India is not a member of either House of Parliament. 3. The Attorney General of India can participate in the proceedings of Parliament. 4. The Attorney General of India is appointed for a fixed term. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: (b) Q18. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India consists of the President and the two Houses. 2. The President is a constituent part of the Parliament. 3. A Money Bill can be introduced in either House of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: (b) Q19. Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha has the power to initiate impeachment proceedings against the Vice-President of India. 2. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to participate in the election of the Vice-President of India. 3. The Rajya Sabha has the power to elect the Deputy Chairman of the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct answer: (d) Q20. Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the power to certify whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not. 2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rules Committee. 3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Business Advisory Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: (d) 2012 Q1. Which of the following are the functions of the Finance Commission of India? 1. To determine the factors governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and the shares of such proceeds receivable by the States. 2. To recommend the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in that State. 4. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in that State. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: (d) Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India cannot be challenged in any court. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (a) Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q4. Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s rule in the State. 2. Appointing the Ministers. 3. Reserving certain bills passed by

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the State Legislature for consideration of the President. 4. Making the rules to regulate the procedure of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: (b) Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President. 3. The Prime Minister shall be the Chairman of the National Development Council. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: (c) Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 contains a provision that an incumbent holding an office of profit is debarred from contesting an election to Parliament. 2. The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term ‘Office of Profit’. 3. The Constitution of India prohibits the members of Parliament from holding any Office of Profit under the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: (b) Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the schedule for the conduct of elections. 3. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: (d) 2011 Q1. Which of the following are the functions of the Finance Commission of India? 1. To determine the factors governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and the shares of such proceeds receivable by the States. 2. To recommend the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in that State. 4. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in that State. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: (d) Q2. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by the Courts in India. 2. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by the Courts in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (c) Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q4. Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s rule in the State. 2. Appointing the Ministers. 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President. 4. Making the rules to regulate the procedure of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: (b) Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President. 3. The Prime Minister shall be the Chairman of the National Development Council. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: (c) Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 contains a provision that an incumbent holding an office of profit is debarred from contesting an election to Parliament. 2. The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term ‘Office of Profit’. 3. The Constitution of India prohibits the members of Parliament from holding any Office of Profit under the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: (b) Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the schedule for the conduct of elections. 3. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: (d) 2010 Q1. Which of the following are the functions of the Finance Commission of India? 1. To determine the factors governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and the shares of such proceeds receivable by the States. 2. To recommend the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in that State. 4. To recommend the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in that State. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: (d) Q2. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by the Courts in India. 2. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by the Courts in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: (c) Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: (c) Q4. Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s rule in the State. 2. Appointing the Ministers. 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President. 4. Making the rules to regulate the procedure of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: (b) Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President. 3. The Prime Minister shall be the Chairman of the National Development Council. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: (c) Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 contains a provision that an incumbent holding an office of profit is debarred from contesting an election to Parliament. 2. The Constitution of India does not explicitly define the term ‘Office of Profit’. 3. The Constitution of India prohibits the members of Parliament from holding any Office of Profit under the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: (b) Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the schedule for the conduct of elections. 3. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: (d)

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