The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body, and understanding its structure and functioning is essential for aspirants of the UPSC CSE and other competitive exams. The Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are the two Houses of Parliament, each with distinct powers, functions, and responsibilities. The Lok Sabha, or the House of the People, represents the public directly, while the Rajya Sabha, or the Council of States, plays a crucial role in ensuring federal balance.
For those preparing for exams, a clear grasp of how the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha operate, their powers, and the interrelationship between the two is key to answering questions accurately. In this post, we present a series of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) that will help reinforce your understanding of Parliament. Each MCQ is followed by a correct answer and a detailed explanation to deepen your conceptual clarity.
Parliament (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) MCQs and Answers
1. Which article of the Indian Constitution establishes the Parliament of the Union?
(a) Article 78
(b) Article 79
(c) Article 80
(d) Article 81
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 79 states that there shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
2. The House of the People (Lok Sabha) consists of:
(a) Members directly elected by the people.
(b) Members nominated by the President.
(c) Members elected by the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Representatives of Union Territories nominated by the President.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 81 specifies that the Lok Sabha shall consist of members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States and Union Territories.
3. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha) consists of:
(a) Members directly elected by the people.
(b) Members nominated by the President and members elected by the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories.
(c) Members elected by the State Legislative Councils.
(d) Representatives of Union Territories directly elected by the people.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 80 outlines the composition of the Rajya Sabha, comprising members nominated by the President for their special knowledge or practical experience and representatives of States and Union Territories elected by the elected members of their Legislative Assemblies.
4. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at:
(a) 543
(b) 545
(c) 550
(d) 552
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 81(1) stipulates that the Lok Sabha shall consist of not more than five hundred and fifty members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States, and not more than twenty members to represent the Union Territories. The provision for nomination of Anglo-Indian members has been removed.
5. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at:
(a) 238 elected + 12 nominated
(b) 245 elected + 12 nominated
(c) 250, out of which 238 are elected and 12 are nominated by the President.
(d) 250 all elected.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 80(1) states that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of not more than two hundred and fifty members, of whom not more than two hundred and thirty-eight shall be representatives of the States and Union Territories, and twelve members shall be nominated by the President.
6. The allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the States is based on:
(a) Their geographical size.
(b) Their population.
(c) Their economic contribution to the Union.
(d) A formula giving equal weightage to population and area.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 81(2) specifies that the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the States shall be on the basis of the population of the States.
7. The representatives of the States in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the:
(a) Directly by the people of the State.
(b) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State.
(c) Governor of the State.
(d) Members of the State Legislative Council.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 80(4) provides that the representatives of each State in the Rajya Sabha shall be elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
8. The term of the Lok Sabha is generally:
(a) 4 years.
(b) 5 years from the date appointed for its first meeting.
(c) 6 years.
(d) Until dissolved by the President.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 83(1) states that the Lok Sabha shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless sooner dissolved.
9. The term of a member of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 4 years.
(b) 5 years.
(c) 6 years, with one-third of its members retiring every two years.
(d) For the duration of the Lok Sabha.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 83(2) specifies that the Rajya Sabha shall not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as may be one-third of its members shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year. Members are elected for a term of six years.
10. Who presides over the Lok Sabha?
(a) The President of India.
(b) The Vice-President of India.
(c) The Speaker.
(d) The Prime Minister.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 93 provides for the election of a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha by its members to preside over its sittings.
11. Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The President of India.
(b) The Vice-President of India, who is the ex-officio Chairman.
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) A member elected by the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 64 and Article 89 state that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
12. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is:
(a) One-third of the total number of members of the House.
(b) One-fourth of the total number of members of the House.
(c) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
(d) A simple majority of the members present.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 100(3) specifies that until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
13. A Bill (other than a Money Bill or a Constitutional Amendment Bill) can originate in:
(a) Only the Lok Sabha.
(b) Only the Rajya Sabha.
(c) Either House of Parliament.
(d) A joint sitting of both Houses.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 107(1) states that subject to the provisions of Articles 109 and 117, a Bill may originate in either House of Parliament. Money Bills can only originate in the Lok Sabha.
14. A Money Bill can originate only in the:
(a) Rajya Sabha.
(b) Lok Sabha.
(c) Joint sitting of both Houses.
(d) Either House with the President’s recommendation.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 109(1) clearly states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It can only originate in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
15. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in:
(a) The passage of Money Bills.
(b) The passage of Constitutional Amendment Bills.
(c) The removal of the President.
(d) The removal of the Prime Minister.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 368 provides that a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament and then assented to by the President. In this regard, the powers of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are equal.
16. The power to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill rests with the:
(a) President of India.
(b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) Supreme Court of India.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 110(3) states that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People shall be final.
17. The Rajya Sabha can delay a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of:
(a) 14 days.
(b) 30 days.
(c) 60 days.
(d) 3 months.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 109(4) specifies that the Rajya Sabha has limited powers over Money Bills. It can suggest amendments, but the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept them. The Rajya Sabha must return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt.
18. A Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be called by the:
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) President of India.
(d) Prime Minister.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 108 empowers the President to summon a joint sitting of both Houses in case of disagreement between them on a non-money bill.
19. Who presides over a Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament?
(a) The President of India.
(b) The Vice-President of India.
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Speaker, or in their absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(d) The senior-most member present.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 118(4) states that the Speaker of the House of the People shall preside over any joint sitting; and if the Speaker is absent, then the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People, or if he is also absent, then the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States, or if he is also absent, then such other person as may be determined by the rules of procedure of the joint sitting.
20. The Parliament of India exercises control over the executive through:
- Questions and interpellations.
- Committees of Parliament.
- Vote of no-confidence.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Parliament exercises significant control over the executive through various mechanisms, including asking questions, scrutinizing government actions through its committees, and the ultimate power of a vote of no-confidence.
21. The power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution is provided under:
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 368
(d) Article 370
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 368 of the Constitution lays down the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution by the Parliament.
22. A Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by each House of Parliament by a:
(a) Simple majority of members present and voting.
(b) Absolute majority of the total membership of the House.
(c) Majority of the total membership of the House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
(d) Three-fourths majority of the total membership of the House.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 368(2) specifies the special majority required for the passage of a Constitutional Amendment Bill in each House of Parliament.
23. Which of the following committees of Parliament is known as the “Public Accounts Committee”?
(a) Committee on Estimates
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Committee on Government Assurances
(d) Committee on Public Accounts
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Committee on Public Accounts is a parliamentary committee that examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on the accounts of the Union Government.
24. The “Estimates Committee” of Parliament is related to:
(a) Examination of public expenditure.
(b) Examination of reports of Public Sector Undertakings.
(c) Examination of government bills.
(d) Matters of parliamentary privileges.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Estimates Committee examines the estimates of expenditure of the Government of India and suggests economies in public expenditure.
25. The “Committee on Public Undertakings” examines the reports and accounts of:
(a) Government ministries.
(b) Statutory and government companies.
(c) Constitutional bodies.
(d) Private sector companies with government contracts.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Committee on Public Undertakings scrutinizes the reports and accounts of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and examines whether they are being run efficiently and economically.
26. The power of the Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List during a National Emergency is derived from:
(a) Article 249
(b) Article 250
(c) Article 252
(d) Article 356
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 250 empowers the Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List while a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation.
27. The power of the Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List if two or more States pass resolutions to that effect is derived from:
(a) Article 249
(b) Article 250
(c) Article 252
(d) Article 356
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 252 allows the Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List for those States which have passed resolutions requesting Parliament to do so. Any law so passed applies only to those States and any other State adopting it by resolution.
28. The Parliament can create new All-India Services by:
(a) A law passed by a simple majority in both Houses.
(b) A law passed by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses.
(c) A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, followed by a law enacted by Parliament.
(d) A Constitutional Amendment under Article 368.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 312 provides that if the Rajya Sabha has declared by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest so to do, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more All-India Services.
29. The Parliament’s power to impeach the President of India is a:
(a) Legislative power.
(b) Executive power.
(c) Quasi-judicial power.
(d) Judicial power.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The impeachment process involves a charge being framed by one House and investigated by the other, with the President having the right to appear and be represented. This process has elements of a judicial proceeding but is conducted by the Parliament, hence it is considered a quasi-judicial power.
30. The Parliament’s power to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is exercised through:
(a) A simple majority vote in both Houses.
(b) A special majority vote (two-thirds of members present and voting, supported by a majority of the total membership) in both Houses, based on proved misbehavior or incapacity.
(c) A resolution passed by the President on the advice of the Supreme Court.
(d) A national referendum.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 124(4) (for Supreme Court judges, applicable to High Court judges via Article 217) specifies the process for the removal of judges, requiring a special majority in both Houses of Parliament after an address by each House to the President on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
31. The Parliament’s power to make laws for the whole or any part of India on matters enumerated in the Union List is:
(a) Exclusive.
(b) Concurrent with State Legislatures.
(c) Subject to the consent of the States.
(d) Limited by the Supreme Court’s interpretation.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 246(1) grants the Parliament exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List I (Union List) in the Seventh Schedule.
32. The Parliament’s power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List is:
(a) Exclusive.
(b) Concurrent with State Legislatures, with Parliament’s law prevailing in case of conflict.
(c) Subject to the consent of the States.
(d) Limited by the President’s assent.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 246(2) provides that both Parliament and the Legislature of any State have power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List III (Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule. However, in case of a conflict, the law made by Parliament prevails over the law made by the State Legislature to the extent of the repugnancy.
33. The residuary powers of legislation, i.e., the power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Union List, State List, or Concurrent List, are vested in:
(a) The President.
(b) The Supreme Court.
(c) The Parliament.
(d) The State Legislatures.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 248(1) states that Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. These are known as residuary powers.
34. The Parliament’s power to extend or restrict the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is subject to:
(a) The consent of the President.
(b) A Constitutional Amendment.
(c) Laws made by the Parliament itself.
(d) The Supreme Court’s own approval.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 138 empowers the Parliament to make laws to confer on the Supreme Court further powers to issue directions, orders or writs for any purposes other than those mentioned in clause (2) of Article 32. Article 139 allows Parliament to confer on the Supreme Court power to issue writs for purposes other than those mentioned in clause (2) of Article 32. The jurisdiction can be extended or restricted by laws made by the Parliament.
35. The Parliament’s control over the Consolidated Fund of India is exercised through:
(a) Direct administration by the Prime Minister.
(b) Approval of all withdrawals by the President.
(c) Appropriation Acts passed by the Parliament.
(d) Oversight by the Supreme Court.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 266 deals with the Consolidated Fund of India. No money can be appropriated out of the Consolidated Fund of India except in accordance with law and for the purposes and in the manner provided in the Constitution. This is primarily done through the enactment of Appropriation Acts by the Parliament.
36. The Parliament’s role in the declaration of a National Emergency includes:
(a) The President declaring it at their discretion.
(b) Requiring a proclamation to be laid before each House of Parliament, where it must be approved by a special majority within one month.
(c) Requiring only the approval of the Lok Sabha.
(d) Requiring a joint session of Parliament to approve it by a simple majority.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 352(3) mandates that a Proclamation of Emergency shall be laid before each House of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of thirty days unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament passed by a special majority.
37. The Parliament’s role in the declaration of a State Emergency (President’s Rule) includes:
(a) The President declaring it based solely on the Governor’s report.
(b) Requiring a proclamation to be laid before each House of Parliament, where it must be approved by a simple majority within two months.
(c) Requiring approval only from the Lok Sabha.
(d) Requiring a joint session of Parliament to approve it by a special majority.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 356(3) states that every Proclamation under this article shall be laid before each House of Parliament and shall, except where it is a Proclamation revoking a previous Proclamation, cease to operate at the expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. The approval is by a simple majority.
38. The Parliament’s role in the declaration of a Financial Emergency includes:
(a) The President declaring it after consulting the Supreme Court.
(b) Requiring a proclamation to be laid before each House of Parliament, where it must be approved by a simple majority within two months.
(c) Requiring approval only from the Rajya Sabha.
(d) Requiring a joint session of Parliament to approve it by a special majority.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 360(3) states that every Proclamation under this article shall be laid before each House of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. The approval is by a simple majority.
39. The Parliament’s power to punish for breach of its privileges is a:
(a) Judicial power exercised under the Constitution.
(b) Executive power delegated by the President.
(c) Quasi-judicial power inherent in its role as a legislative body.
(d) Legislative power exercised through ordinary laws.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 105(3) grants certain powers, privileges, and immunities to the Parliament and its members. The power to punish for breach of these privileges is considered a quasi-judicial power necessary for the effective functioning and dignity of the legislature.
40. The Parliament’s role in the removal of the Vice-President of India involves:
(a) Impeachment by both Houses with a special majority.
(b) A resolution passed by the Lok Sabha and agreed to by the Rajya Sabha with a simple majority.
(c) A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by a majority of all the then members and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
(d) A joint session of Parliament with a simple majority.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 67(b) provides the procedure for the removal of the Vice-President, which involves a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
41. The Parliament’s power to regulate its own procedure and the conduct of its business is enshrined in:
(a) Article 100
(b) Article 118
(c) Article 121
(d) Article 123
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 118(1) states that each House of Parliament may make rules for regulating its own procedure and the conduct of its business subject to the provisions of the Constitution.
42. The “Zero Hour” in the Parliament refers to:
(a) The first hour of sitting, reserved for questions.
(b) The last hour of sitting, reserved for voting on bills.
(c) The time immediately following the Question Hour and before the regular business of the House is taken up, during which members can raise matters without prior notice.
(d) The time when no business is conducted due to disruptions.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: “Zero Hour” is an informal convention in the Indian Parliament, usually starting at 12 noon, where members can raise important issues without giving any prior notice.
43. The “Question Hour” in the Parliament is the time when:
(a) Bills are introduced.
(b) Members ask questions to Ministers and hold the government accountable.
(c) Resolutions and motions are discussed.
(d) Voting on bills takes place.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The first hour of every sitting in both Houses of Parliament is usually devoted to the Question Hour, where Members of Parliament ask questions to the government ministers on various aspects of administration and policy.
44. A “Censure Motion” in the Parliament is moved to:
(a) Seek information from the government.
(b) Express disapproval of the policy or action of the government.
(c) Initiate a debate on an urgent matter of public importance.
(d) Seek the removal of a particular minister.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A Censure Motion is a form of expressing strong disapproval of a specific policy or action of the government or the entire Council of Ministers. If passed, it can have political implications for the government.
45. A “No-Confidence Motion” can be moved only in the:
(a) Rajya Sabha.
(b) Lok Sabha.
(c) Joint sitting of both Houses.
(d) Either House of Parliament.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of no-confidence, indicating that it can only be moved in the Lok Sabha, as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to it.
46. The concept of “Lame Duck Session” refers to:
(a) A session of Parliament with very low attendance.
(b) The last session of the outgoing Lok Sabha, after a new Lok Sabha has been elected but before it has convened.
(c) A session specifically convened to discuss a single issue.
(d) A prolonged session of Parliament extending beyond its usual duration.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A “Lame Duck Session” refers to the final session of the outgoing Lok Sabha after the general elections have been held and the results declared, but before the newly elected members take their oath and the new Lok Sabha is constituted.
47. The Parliament’s power to create or abolish Legislative Councils in States is subject to:
(a) A Constitutional Amendment.
(b) A law passed by the Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority.
(c) The President’s discretion based on the Governor’s recommendation.
(d) A referendum in the concerned State.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 169 provides the procedure for the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in States. It requires a resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of the State by a special majority, followed by an Act of Parliament.
48. The privileges of Parliament extend to:
- Members of Parliament.
- Committees of Parliament.
- Persons who are not members but have a right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any committee thereof.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 105 grants parliamentary privileges to MPs, parliamentary committees, and those who have the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings (e.g., Attorney General).
49. The role of the Rajya Sabha in maintaining the federal balance in India is significant because:
(a) It has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in all legislative matters.
(b) It represents the States in the Union Legislature and provides a voice to the States.
(c) Its members are directly elected by the people of the States.
(d) It has the exclusive power to legislate on matters in the State List.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha, as the Council of States, is designed to represent the interests of the States in the Union Parliament, thus playing a crucial role in upholding the federal structure of India.
50. The Parliament’s power to legislate on international treaties and agreements derives from:
(a) The exclusive powers under the Union List.
(b) The residuary powers of legislation.
(c) Article 253, which empowers Parliament to make laws for implementing international treaties, agreements, and conventions.
(d) The inherent sovereign powers of the Union.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 253 specifically empowers the Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body.
A sound understanding of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is vital for tackling questions in the Polity section of the UPSC CSE and similar exams. The intricacies of Parliamentary procedures, membership, powers, and functions need consistent practice and revision.
We hope that the MCQs and their explanations have been helpful in refining your knowledge on this topic. As you continue preparing, don’t hesitate to revisit these concepts, as they frequently appear in exams and are crucial to understanding the legislative processes in India.