President of India MCQs and Answers with Explanations

The President of India is the constitutional head of the state and the highest executive authority under Article 52 of the Constitution. As a key topic in UPSC Civil Services, State PSCs, and other exams, questions often focus on the election process, powers, functions, and position of the President within India’s parliamentary framework.

In this post, we bring you a set of MCQs on the President of India, each followed by clear and insightful explanations. These questions are designed to test your grasp on constitutional provisions, real-life precedents, and the nuances of the President’s role during normal and emergency situations.

President of India MCQs and Answers

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the President of India?

(a) Article 52

(b) Article 61

(c) Article 74

(d) Article 78

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 52 of the Indian Constitution states, “There shall be a President of India.”  

2. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

  1. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.  
  2. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.  
  3. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Article 54 outlines the electoral college for the President’s election, which includes all the elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies, as well as the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry.  

3. The election of the President of India is conducted in accordance with the system of:

(a) First-past-the-post.

(b) Proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

(c) Cumulative voting.

(d) Block voting.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 55(3) specifies that the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting shall be by secret ballot.  

4. Which of the following qualifications is NOT required to be eligible for election as the President of India?

(a) Citizen of India.

(b) Completed 35 years of age.

(c) Qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

(d) Not holding any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 58 lays down the qualifications for the President. The person must be a citizen of India, must have completed 35 years of age, and must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha.  

5. The President of India holds office for a term of:

(a) 4 years.

(b) 5 years.

(c) 6 years.

(d) Until the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 56(1) states that the President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter upon their office.  

6. The President of India can be removed from office before the expiry of their term by:

(a) A resolution passed by the Supreme Court.

(b) A vote of no-confidence passed by the Parliament.

(c) Impeachment by the Parliament.

(d) A resolution passed by the State Legislatures.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 61 provides for the impeachment of the President for “violation of the Constitution.” The impeachment process can be initiated by either House of Parliament.  

7. The charge of impeachment against the President can be initiated by:

(a) Either House of Parliament.

(b) The Supreme Court of India.

(c) The Prime Minister.

(d) The Attorney General of India.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 61(1) states that when a charge is preferred by either House of Parliament, it shall be investigated by the other House.

8. The President of India addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together:

(a) At the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the commencement of the first session of each year.

(b) Only at the commencement of the first session after each general election.

(c) Only at the commencement of the first session of each year.

(d) Whenever the President deems it necessary.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 87 specifies that the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year.  

9. Which article of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament?

(a) Article 111

(b) Article 123

(c) Article 143

(d) Article 161

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament if they are satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for them to take immediate action.  

10. The President of India can seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India under:

(a) Article 74

(b) Article 111

(c) Article 143

(d) Article 280

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 143 empowers the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact of public importance.

11. The President of India appoints:

  1. The Prime Minister of India.
  2. The Chief Justice of India.
  3. The Governors of the States.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The President appoints the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India, and the Governors of the States, among other high officials.  

12. The power of the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment is provided under:

(a) Article 72

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 78

(d) Article 111

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.  

13. The President of India is the:

(a) Head of the Government.

(b) Head of the State.

(c) Head of the Judiciary.

(d) Head of the Parliament.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The President is the constitutional head of the State, while the Prime Minister is the head of the Government.

14. Which of the following bills requires the prior recommendation of the President for introduction in the Parliament?

(a) Ordinary bills.

(b) Money bills.

(c) Constitutional amendment bills.

(d) Private member bills.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 117(1) states that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States and shall not be introduced in the House of the People except on the recommendation of the President.

15. The President of India returns a non-money bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. If the bill is passed again by the Parliament, the President:

(a) Can withhold assent.

(b) Must give assent.

(c) Can refer the bill to the Supreme Court.

(d) Can initiate a national referendum.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 111 provides that if a bill is returned by the President for reconsideration and is passed again by the Houses with or without amendment and presented to the President for assent, the President shall not withhold assent therefrom.  

16. The President of India is an integral part of the:

(a) Parliament.

(b) Supreme Court.

(c) Council of Ministers.

(d) Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 79 states that there shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.  

17. In the absence of both the President and the Vice-President, who discharges the functions of the President of India?

(a) The Prime Minister.

(b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

(c) The Chief Justice of India.

(d) The Attorney General of India.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 70 provides that Parliament may make such provision as it thinks fit for the discharge of the functions of the President in any contingency not provided for in this Chapter. The President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969, specifies that in the event of the offices of both the President and the Vice-President being vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court available) shall discharge the functions of the President.  

18. The President of India enjoys certain constitutional immunities, including:

(a) Being answerable to any court for the exercise of powers and duties of their office.

(b) Criminal proceedings being instituted or continued against them during their term of office.

(c) Not being amenable to any process for the arrest or imprisonment during their term of office.

(d) The power to dismiss the Prime Minister at their discretion.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 361(3) states that no process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President shall issue from any court during their term of office. While they are not answerable to any court for the exercise of the powers and duties of their office (Article 361(1)), civil proceedings can be instituted after giving a two months’ notice (Article 361(4)).  

19. The residuary powers of legislation are vested in the Parliament, but the President has the power to promulgate Ordinances on all matters on which Parliament can legislate, including when the Parliament is:

(a) In session.

(b) In recess.

(c) Adjourned for a short period.

(d) Dissolved.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 123 clearly states that the President can promulgate Ordinances during the recess of either or both Houses of Parliament.  

20. Which of the following appointments is NOT made by the President of India?

(a) The Governors of the States.

(b) The Chief Election Commissioner.

(c) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.

(d) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha itself, as per Article 89. The President appoints the Governors, the Chief Election Commissioner, and the Chairman of the UPSC.  

21. The President of India can declare a National Emergency based on a written request from:

(a) The Prime Minister.

(b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

(c) The Council of Ministers.

(d) The Chief Justice of India.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act made it mandatory that the President shall not issue a Proclamation of National Emergency unless the decision of the Union Cabinet to that effect is communicated to them in writing (Article 352).

22. The impeachment process against the President of India requires:

(a) A simple majority in both Houses of Parliament.

(b) A two-thirds majority of the members present and voting in both Houses.

(c) A majority of the total membership of each House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.

(d) A three-fourths majority of the total membership of both Houses.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 61(2) specifies that a resolution for impeachment must be passed by a majority of the total membership of the House initiating the charge, and the other House must investigate the charge and pass a resolution by a majority of the total membership of that House declaring that the charge has been sustained.  

23. The President of India acts as the:

(a) Real executive authority of the Union.

(b) Nominal executive authority of the Union.

(c) Head of the legislature.

(d) Head of the judiciary.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: India follows a parliamentary system where the President is the constitutional head (nominal executive) and the real executive powers are vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister (Article 74).  

24. Which of the following powers of the President is subject to judicial review?

(a) The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

(b) The power to grant pardon.

(c) The power to appoint the Prime Minister.

(d) The power to seek advisory opinion from the Supreme Court.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: While the President’s discretionary powers are generally limited, the exercise of the power to grant pardons under Article 72 has been held to be subject to judicial review on certain grounds, such as being arbitrary, discriminatory, or mala fide.  

25. The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the President and the Vice-President based on the:

(a) Rules framed by the Parliament.

(b) Directions issued by the Prime Minister’s Office.

(c) Provisions laid down in the Constitution and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.

(d) Guidelines issued by the Supreme Court.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The entire process of the election of the President and the Vice-President is governed by the provisions of the Constitution (Articles 54-57 and 66) and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, along with the rules made thereunder.

26. The President of India makes recommendations to the Parliament for the introduction of a Bill affecting taxation in which the States are interested, but only after consultation with:

(a) The Finance Minister.

(b) The Attorney General of India.

(c) The Governors of the States.

(d) The Finance Commission.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Article 274 states that no Bill or amendment which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which States are interested, or which varies the meaning of the expression “agricultural income” as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income-tax, or which affects the principles on which under any of the foregoing provisions of this Chapter moneys are or may be distributable to States, or which imposes any surcharge for the purposes of the Union as mentioned in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, shall be introduced in either House of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President. Such recommendation is usually made after consultation with the Finance Commission, as these matters directly impact the financial relations between the Union and the States.  

27. The President of India can withhold assent to a State Bill reserved by the Governor for the President’s consideration:

(a) Only once, asking for reconsideration.

(b) For a maximum period of six months.

(c) Without any time limit.

(d) Only if the Supreme Court advises against giving assent.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Unlike a Union Bill returned for reconsideration, there is no constitutional provision that compels the President to give assent to a State Bill reserved for their consideration, even if the State Legislature passes it again. The President can withhold assent indefinitely.

28. Which of the following powers does the President of India exercise in their discretion?

(a) Summoning and proroguing the Houses of Parliament.

(b) Dissolving the Lok Sabha.

(c) Appointing the Prime Minister when no single party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.

(d) Giving assent to bills passed by the Parliament.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: While the President generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, they have some discretionary powers. A key one is in the appointment of the Prime Minister when no single party or coalition commands a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In such a situation, the President uses their judgment to invite the leader most likely to form a stable government.  

29. The President of India nominates members to the Rajya Sabha from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of:

  1. Literature
  2. Science
  3. Art
  4. Social service

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) Only 1, 2, and 3

(b) Only 2, 3, and 4

(c) Only 1, 3, and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Article 80(3) specifies these four fields from which the President can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.

30. The expression “violation of the Constitution,” which is the ground for impeachment of the President, has:

(a) Been clearly defined in the Constitution.

(b) Been interpreted by the Supreme Court in various cases.

(c) Not been clearly defined, leaving it open to interpretation by the Parliament.

(d) A specific meaning derived from conventions and precedents.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The term “violation of the Constitution” is not explicitly defined in the Constitution, giving the Parliament flexibility in determining what constitutes such a violation during the impeachment process. This lack of a clear definition can be a subject of debate and political contention.

31. The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of the Union, but the exercise of this power is:

(a) Subject to parliamentary control.

(b) Under the direct command of the President.

(c) Exercised on the advice of the Supreme Court.

(d) Delegated to the Chief of Defence Staff.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 53(2) states that the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law. This implies that parliamentary legislation governs how the President exercises this power, ensuring civilian control over the military.  

32. In the context of proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, the 38th Amendment Act, 1975, had made the President’s satisfaction:

(a) Subject to judicial review.

(b) Final and conclusive and not to be questioned in any court on any ground.

(c) Dependent on a prior resolution from the Parliament.

(d) Conditional on the advice of the Supreme Court.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The 38th Amendment had made the President’s satisfaction regarding the proclamation of emergency final and non-justiciable. However, this provision was later removed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, making the President’s satisfaction subject to judicial review on certain grounds.

33. Which of the following powers is NOT vested in the President of India?

(a) To declare war or conclude peace.

(b) To veto a constitutional amendment bill.

(c) To summon, prorogue, and dissolve the Lok Sabha.

(d) To appoint ambassadors and high commissioners.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 368(2) states that when a Constitution Amendment Bill is passed by each House by a special majority and assented to by the President, the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill. The President is constitutionally bound to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill and cannot veto it.  

34. The concept of “President’s Rule” under Article 356 signifies:

(a) Direct rule of the President over a State through an appointed Governor.

(b) Suspension of fundamental rights in a State.

(c) Dissolution of the State Legislature permanently.

(d) Transfer of all legislative powers of the State to the Supreme Court.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: President’s Rule implies that the governance of the State is directly taken over by the President through the Governor, who acts as the President’s representative. The State Legislature may be suspended or dissolved, and the Parliament exercises legislative powers for the State.

35. The quorum to constitute the electoral college for the election of the President of India is:

(a) Half of the total number of electors.

(b) One-third of the total number of electors.

(c) No quorum is prescribed.

(d) Two-thirds of the total number of electors.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Constitution and the relevant laws do not prescribe any quorum for the meeting of the electoral college for the election of the President. The election proceeds as long as the process is conducted according to the rules.

36. Which of the following financial powers is exercised by the President of India?

(a) Finally deciding on the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States.

(b) Authorizing withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India.

(c) Laying before the Parliament the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

(d) Imposing financial emergency without parliamentary approval.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 281 mandates that the President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament.  

37. The President of India can declare a Financial Emergency under Article 360 if they are satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened. This satisfaction is:

(a) Subjective and not open to judicial review.

(b) Objective and must be based on verifiable facts.

(c) Based solely on the advice of the Reserve Bank of India.

(d) Requires a prior resolution from the Parliament.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: While the initial satisfaction was considered subjective, judicial pronouncements have indicated that the President’s satisfaction must be based on objective material and is subject to judicial review if found to be based on extraneous or mala fide grounds.  

38. The President of India has the power to nominate how many members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community if they are of the opinion that the community is not adequately represented?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) No such provision exists anymore.

(d) Four

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 331 originally provided for the nomination of not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if the President was of the opinion that the community was not adequately represented. However, this provision was not extended by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, and has thus ceased to exist.  

39. The term “office of profit” which disqualifies a person from being elected as President implies:

(a) Any office that yields a salary or monetary gain, regardless of the source.

(b) Only those offices held under the Union or State Government that carry a salary.

(c) An office under the Union or State Government, or any local or other authority subject to the control of any of those Governments, that carries a salary or honorarium, excluding certain specified offices.

(d) Only high constitutional posts like Judges and Governors.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The interpretation of “office of profit” has evolved through judicial pronouncements. Generally, it refers to a position under the government (Union, State, or local authority under their control) that carries a salary or honorarium, which could potentially influence the holder in a way that conflicts with their independent discharge of presidential duties. Certain offices, like that of a Minister, are constitutionally exempted from this disqualification.

40. The President of India’s power to grant pardon in cases of punishment by a Court Martial is:

(a) Co-extensive with the power in other cases.

(b) More limited than in other cases.

(c) Subject to the approval of the Chief Justice of India.

(d) Not applicable.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 72(1)(a) explicitly states that the President has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment for offences in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial. This power is co-extensive with the power in cases of offences against Union laws and sentences by civil courts in certain matters.

41. The President of India communicates information to the Parliament through:

(a) Direct interaction with individual members.

(b) Addresses to both Houses, messages, and laying reports.

(c) Press conferences and public statements.

(d) The Prime Minister.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The President communicates with the Parliament through formal addresses to both Houses (under Articles 86 and 87), by sending messages to either House with respect to a Bill pending in Parliament or otherwise (Article 86), and by laying various reports (like those of the Finance Commission, CAG, etc.) before the Parliament.  

42. The election of the President of India can be challenged before the Supreme Court on the ground that:

(a) The electoral college was not duly constituted.

(b) There was a minor procedural irregularity in the conduct of the election.

(c) The candidate elected is not popular.

(d) The political ideology of the elected candidate is not in line with the Constitution.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 71(1) states that all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final. Grounds for challenge typically relate to the composition of the electoral college or the conduct of the election process violating the rules.  

43. The President’s power to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business is exercised:

(a) In their sole discretion.

(b) After consultation with the Supreme Court.

(c) On the advice of the Prime Minister.

(d) With the approval of both Houses of Parliament.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 77(3) states that the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. This power is exercised on the advice of the Prime Minister, as the President generally acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.  

44. The President of India is NOT accountable to any court for the exercise of the powers and duties of their office, EXCEPT during:

(a) Impeachment proceedings.

(b) A national referendum on their actions.

(c) A vote of no-confidence in the Parliament.

(d) Proceedings initiated by the Attorney General.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 361(1) grants the President immunity from being answerable to any court for the exercise of the powers and duties of their office. However, this immunity does not extend to the impeachment process itself, where the President’s conduct is scrutinized by the Parliament.  

45. The President of India’s power to return a Bill for reconsideration under Article 111 is subject to which of the following limitations?

(a) The President can suggest specific amendments to the Bill.

(b) The President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration.

(c) The President must give assent if the Bill is passed again by the Parliament.

(d) All of the above.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Article 111 allows the President to return a non-money Bill for reconsideration, and they can suggest amendments. However, they cannot return a Money Bill, and they must give assent if the Bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments.  

46. The President of India’s power to appoint the Chairman and members of the Finance Commission is exercised:

(a) In their sole discretion.

(b) On the advice of the Prime Minister.

(c) With the approval of the Supreme Court.

(d) After consultation with the State Governors.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 280 provides that the President shall constitute a Finance Commission. While the President makes the appointment, they do so on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.  

47. The President of India’s power to declare a State Emergency under Article 356 is based on:

(a) The President’s own assessment of the situation.

(b) The advice of the Prime Minister.

(c) A report from the Governor of the State or otherwise.

(d) A resolution passed by the State Legislature.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 356 specifies that the President can declare a State Emergency if they receive a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, and are satisfied that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.  

48. The President of India’s power to grant pardons in cases of death sentence is:

(a) Subject to the approval of the Supreme Court.

(b) Limited to cases where the State government recommends clemency.

(c) Absolute and not subject to any limitations.

(d) Subject to judicial review on certain grounds.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: While the President has the power to grant pardons, including in cases of death sentence, this power is not absolute. The Supreme Court has held that the exercise of this power is subject to judicial review on grounds of being arbitrary, discriminatory, or mala fide.  

49. The President of India can nominate members to the Rajya Sabha who are experts in fields like literature, science, art, and social service. The underlying principle behind this provision is to:

(a) Ensure representation of political parties in the Rajya Sabha.

(b) Provide a platform for eminent persons to contribute to national debates.

(c) Balance the representation of States in the Rajya Sabha.

(d) Allow the President to exercise greater influence over the Rajya Sabha.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The nomination of experts to the Rajya Sabha is aimed at bringing in individuals with specialized knowledge and experience to contribute to the debates and discussions in the Parliament, enriching the legislative process with their expertise.  

50. The President of India’s power to appoint the Attorney General of India is exercised:

(a) In their sole discretion.

(b) On the advice of the Prime Minister.

(c) With the approval of the Supreme Court.

(d) After consultation with the State Governors.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 76 provides for the appointment of the Attorney General of India by the President. This appointment is made on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, as the Attorney General is the principal legal advisor to the Government of India.  

Mastering the topic of the President of India is crucial for scoring well in polity sections of various competitive exams. These MCQs not only help revise key facts and articles but also clarify complex aspects through well-reasoned explanations.

Keep practicing topic-specific questions and dive deeper into the Indian Polity to sharpen your UPSC preparation. Stay consistent, and you’ll steadily move closer to your goal!

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