The Salient Features of the Indian Constitution form the backbone of Polity questions in most Indian competitive exams like UPSC, State PSCs, SSC, and others. From federalism and parliamentary democracy to fundamental rights and judicial independence, these features reflect the spirit and structure of the world’s lengthiest written constitution.
Salient Features of Indian Constitution MCQs and Answers
1. Which of the following best describes the nature of the Indian Constitution?
a) Strictly federal
b) Strictly unitary
c) A federation with a strong centralizing tendency
d) A unitary state with federal features
Answer: (c) A federation with a strong centralizing tendency
Explanation: The Indian Constitution establishes a federal system with a division of powers between the Union and the States. However, it also incorporates several features that grant more power to the Centre, such as residuary powers, single citizenship, and the power of Parliament to legislate on state subjects under certain conditions.
2. The concept of ‘judicial review’ in the Indian Constitution is primarily based on:
a) The doctrine of separation of powers
b) The principle of parliamentary sovereignty
c) The due process clause of the American Constitution
d) The procedure established by law
Answer: (a) The doctrine of separation of powers
Explanation: Judicial review, the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, stems from the principle of separation of powers, ensuring that no organ of the state exceeds its constitutional limits. While the phrase ‘procedure established by law’ (Article 21) is used, judicial review goes beyond merely checking if the procedure was followed and examines the substantive fairness and constitutionality.
3. Which of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)?
a) Fourth Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Sixth Schedule
d) Seventh Schedule
Answer: (a) Fourth Schedule
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule specifically outlines the allocation of seats to each state and union territory in the Rajya Sabha.
4. The ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’ of the Indian Constitution was evolved by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?
a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
d) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
Answer: (a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
Explanation: This landmark case established that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, this power is not unlimited and cannot alter the ‘basic structure’ or essential features of the Constitution.
5. Which of the following features is NOT a characteristic of a parliamentary form of government as adopted in India?
a) Presence of a nominal and a real executive
b) Majority party rule
c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
d) Strict separation of powers between the legislature and the executive
Answer: (d) Strict separation of powers between the legislature and the executive
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, there is a fusion of powers between the executive and the legislature. The executive (Council of Ministers) is drawn from the legislature and is responsible to it.
6. The concept of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution is inspired by the Constitution of which country?
a) United States of America
b) Ireland
c) Canada
d) Australia
Answer: (b) Ireland
Explanation: The DPSP, enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, are non-justiciable guidelines for the state to follow while framing laws and policies. This concept was borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
7. Which of the following fundamental rights is available to both citizens and non-citizens of India?
a) Right to freedom of speech and expression (Article 19)
b) Right to equality before the law (Article 14)
c) Right to freedom to reside and settle in any part of India (Article 19)
d) Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business (Article 19)
Answer: (b) Right to equality before the law (Article 14)
Explanation: Article 14 states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The term ‘person’ includes both citizens and non-citizens.
8. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble to the Indian Constitution is correct?
a) It is a part of the Constitution and can be amended by Parliament.
b) It is not a part of the Constitution and therefore cannot be amended.
c) It is a non-justiciable part of the Constitution.
d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)
Explanation: The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended, provided that the basic features are not altered. It is also non-justiciable, meaning its provisions cannot be directly enforced by a court.
9. The idea of ‘fraternity’ as mentioned in the Preamble primarily aims to promote:
a) Equality among citizens
b) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship
c) A sense of brotherhood and unity among the people
d) Justice – social, economic, and political
Answer: (c) A sense of brotherhood and unity among the people
Explanation: Fraternity emphasizes a feeling of common brotherhood and sisterhood among all citizens, transcending religious, linguistic, regional, or sectional diversities, and assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
10. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution reflects a commitment to social justice?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights ensure equality and prohibit discrimination, contributing to social justice. The Directive Principles explicitly aim to promote social and economic justice by guiding the state in formulating policies for the welfare of the people.
11. The concept of ‘single citizenship’ in India was adopted from the Constitution of:
a) United Kingdom
b) United States of America
c) Switzerland
d) Canada
Answer: (a) United Kingdom
Explanation: Unlike federal systems like the USA and Switzerland, where citizens hold dual citizenship (of the nation and the state), India has adopted the principle of single citizenship, where every person is a citizen of India only.
12. Which of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
a) Third Schedule
b) Fourth Schedule
c) Fifth Schedule
d) Sixth Schedule
Answer: (c) Fifth Schedule
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule lays down provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
13. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in which of the following states?
a) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland, Sikkim
b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
c) Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh
d) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
Answer: (b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule provides for the constitution of Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions with certain legislative, executive, and judicial powers within these four northeastern states.
14. Which of the following best describes the ‘secular’ nature of the Indian state?
a) Complete separation of religion and state
b) Equal respect for all religions
c) Preference for no particular religion
d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation: Indian secularism does not entail a strict separation of religion and state in the Western sense. Instead, it embodies the principle of ‘Sarva Dharma Sambhava’ – equal respect for all religions. The state does not endorse any particular religion as the official religion.
15. The power of the Indian Parliament to amend the Constitution is limited by:
a) The Fundamental Rights of citizens
b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
c) The Basic Structure of the Constitution
d) The Preamble to the Constitution
Answer: (c) The Basic Structure of the Constitution
Explanation: As established in the Kesavananda Bharati case, Parliament’s amending power is not absolute and cannot be used to alter the fundamental or ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
16. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution promotes ‘parliamentary sovereignty’ to some extent?
a) Judicial Review
b) Written Constitution
c) Amendment procedure
d) Absence of a rigid separation of powers
Answer: (d) Absence of a rigid separation of powers
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, the executive is drawn from and responsible to the legislature, indicating a degree of fusion of powers rather than strict separation, which contributes to the concept of parliamentary sovereignty, although it is balanced by judicial review and the written nature of the Constitution.
17. The ‘Fundamental Duties’ were added to the Indian Constitution by which of the following amendments?
a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties, inspired by the Constitution of the former USSR, were incorporated into Part IVA of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment, also known as the ‘Mini-Constitution’.
18. Which of the following principles is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
a) Republic
b) Federalism
c) Liberty
d) Equality
Answer: (b) Federalism
Explanation: While the Indian Constitution establishes a federal system, the term ‘federalism’ is not explicitly used in the Preamble. The Preamble mentions ideals like Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity, and the nature of the state as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, and Republic.
19. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ in the Indian Constitution primarily implies:
a) The supremacy of the judiciary
b) The supremacy of the legislature
c) Government according to law and not arbitrary power
d) Equality before the law and equal protection of the laws
Answer: (c) Government according to law and not arbitrary power
Explanation: The Rule of Law signifies that the government and all individuals are subject to and accountable under the law. It implies that governance should be based on established legal principles and not on the arbitrary decisions of individuals in power.
20. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution ensures the independence of the judiciary?
a) Security of tenure for judges
b) Fixed salaries and allowances of judges charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
c) Power of the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of court
d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: Several provisions in the Constitution are designed to safeguard the independence of the judiciary, including security of tenure, fixed emoluments, protection from discussions in Parliament and state legislatures regarding their conduct (except during impeachment), and the power to punish for contempt.
21. The Indian Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature at the Union level. Which of the following states also have a bicameral legislature?
a) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Punjab
b) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra
c) West Bengal, Odisha, Rajasthan
d) Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra
Explanation: As of May 2025, the states with bicameral legislatures (having both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council) are Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.
22. Which of the following is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution that is often described as a blend of rigidity and flexibility?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Amendment Procedure (Article 368)
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Fundamental Duties
Answer: (b) Amendment Procedure (Article 368)
Explanation: Article 368 outlines different procedures for amending various parts of the Constitution. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament, while others require a special majority (two-thirds of the members present and voting, and a majority of the total membership of each House) and ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states, reflecting a balance between flexibility and rigidity.
23. The concept of ‘Union of States’ as mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution implies that:
a) States have the freedom to secede from the Union.
b) The Union is indestructible, and the states cannot secede.
c) The boundaries of the states can be altered by the Union with the consent of the concerned states.
d) The states are mere administrative units of the Union government.
Answer: (b) The Union is indestructible, and the states cannot secede.
Explanation: Article 1 describes India as a ‘Union of States,’ emphasizing the indissoluble nature of the Indian Union. While the Union can alter the boundaries of states, the states do not have the right to secede.
24. Which of the following is a feature of the Indian Constitution that distinguishes it from other federal constitutions?
a) Written Constitution
b) Supremacy of the Constitution
c) Division of powers between the Centre and the States
d) Single integrated judiciary
Answer: (d) Single integrated judiciary
Explanation: Many federal constitutions have a dual system of courts. However, India has a single integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court at the apex, followed by High Courts at the state level and subordinate courts. This ensures uniformity in the interpretation and application of laws.
25. The ‘Concurrent List’ in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution includes subjects on which:
a) Only the Union Parliament can legislate.
b) Only the State Legislatures can legislate.
c) Both the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures can legislate.
d) Neither the Union Parliament nor the State Legislatures can legislate.
Answer: (c) Both the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures can legislate.
Explanation: The Concurrent List contains subjects over which both the Parliament and the state legislatures have the power to make laws. However, in case of a conflict, the law made by the Parliament prevails.
26. Which of the following constitutional amendments made education a fundamental right for children between 6 and 14 years of age?
a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Answer: (d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Explanation: The 86th Amendment added Article 21A to Part III of the Constitution, making elementary education a fundamental right. It also made consequential changes to Article 45 (DPSP) and Article 51A (Fundamental Duties).
27. The concept of ‘socialist’ as enshrined in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution primarily aims to achieve:
a) Nationalization of all means of production
b) Elimination of private property
c) Reduction of economic inequalities and equitable distribution of wealth
d) Establishment of a communist state
Answer: (c) Reduction of economic inequalities and equitable distribution of wealth
Explanation: The term ‘socialist’ in the Preamble signifies a commitment to a welfare state where the government strives to reduce economic disparities and ensure a fair distribution of resources, without necessarily advocating for complete nationalization or elimination of private property.
28. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution that contributes to its being the ‘longest written constitution’ in the world?
a) Detailed provisions for the governance of the Union and the States.
b) Inclusion of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties.
c) Elaborate procedures for the election of various constitutional functionaries.
d) Adoption of principles from various constitutions around the world.
Answer: (c) Elaborate procedures for the election of various constitutional functionaries.
Explanation: While the Constitution does detail election procedures, the primary reasons for its length are the comprehensive coverage of various aspects of governance, the inclusion of justiciable rights and non-justiciable principles, and the detailed provisions for Centre-State relations. The adoption of principles from other constitutions contributed to its content but not necessarily its length in terms of procedural details for elections.
29. Which of the following best describes the ‘democratic’ nature of the Indian polity as reflected in the Constitution?
a) Rule of law and an independent judiciary
b) Free and fair elections and universal adult suffrage
c) Separation of powers between the three organs of the state
d) A written constitution with a parliamentary form of government
Answer: (b) Free and fair elections and universal adult suffrage
Explanation: The democratic nature of India is fundamentally rooted in the principle of popular sovereignty, exercised through regular, free, and fair elections based on universal adult suffrage (the right to vote for all adult citizens).
30. The ‘federal’ features of the Indian Constitution are primarily evident in:
a) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
b) The Directive Principles of State Policy and the Fundamental Duties
c) The division of powers between the Union and the States (Seventh Schedule) and the existence of independent states
d) The parliamentary form of government and the independence of the judiciary
Answer: (c) The division of powers between the Union and the States (Seventh Schedule) and the existence of independent states
Explanation: The core of federalism lies in the division of powers between different levels of government. The Seventh Schedule demarcates the legislative, executive, and financial powers between the Union and the States. The existence of states with their own legislative and executive machinery is another key federal feature.
31. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution upholds the principle of ‘equality before the law’?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
Answer: (a) Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 explicitly states that “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.”
32. The concept of ‘republic’ in the Preamble signifies that the head of the state in India is:
a) Elected directly by the people
b) Elected indirectly for a fixed term
c) A hereditary monarch
d) Appointed by the central government
Answer: (b) Elected indirectly for a fixed term
Explanation: A republic means that the head of the state (the President of India) is not a hereditary ruler but an elected representative, though indirectly elected by an electoral college for a fixed term.
33. Which of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution deals with the languages recognized by the Constitution?
a) Seventh Schedule
b) Eighth Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Tenth Schedule
Answer: (b) Eighth Schedule
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists the official languages of the Republic of India. Initially, there were 14 languages, and now there are 22.
34. The ‘Doctrine of Separation of Powers’ in India is:
a) Strictly adhered to as in the United States.
b) Flexible, with some overlap between the organs of the government.
c) Primarily applicable at the state level, not at the Union level.
d) A basic feature that cannot be amended.
Answer: (b) Flexible, with some overlap between the organs of the government.
Explanation: While the Indian Constitution envisages a separation of powers among the legislature, executive, and judiciary, it is not as rigid as in the US system. There is some overlap, for instance, the executive is drawn from the legislature.
35. Which of the following constitutional amendments added the word ‘Secular’ to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
c) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
d) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation: The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
36. The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by which of the following amendments?
a) First Amendment Act, 1951
b) Seventh Amendment Act, 1956
c) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971
d) Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
Answer: (a) First Amendment Act, 1951
Explanation: The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment to protect certain land reform and other laws from judicial review.
37. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution reflects the influence of the Canadian Constitution?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) A federation with a strong Centre
d) The concept of judicial review
Answer: (c) A federation with a strong Centre
Explanation: The Canadian Constitution also establishes a federal system but with a stronger central government, and this model influenced the Indian Constitution’s federal structure.
38. The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to:
a) Provisions relating to Panchayats
b) Provisions relating to Municipalities
c) Anti-defection law
d) Special provisions for certain classes
Answer: (c) Anti-defection law
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, contains provisions to prevent political defections by legislators.
39. Which of the following best describes the ‘welfare state’ objective as envisioned in the Indian Constitution?
a) Ensuring basic necessities for all citizens through direct state control.
b) Promoting social and economic justice through policies guided by the Directive Principles.
c) Establishing a classless society with equal distribution of wealth.
d) Minimizing the role of the state in economic activities.
Answer: (b) Promoting social and economic justice through policies guided by the Directive Principles.
Explanation: The concept of a welfare state in the Indian context, as reflected in the DPSP, aims at achieving social and economic justice by guiding the state to formulate policies that promote the well-being of all citizens, reduce inequalities, and provide opportunities for development.
40. Which of the following fundamental rights can be suspended during a national emergency declared under Article 352?
a) Rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21
b) Rights guaranteed under Article 19
c) Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
d) All Fundamental Rights
Answer: (b) Rights guaranteed under Article 19
Explanation: During a national emergency declared on the grounds of war or external aggression, the rights guaranteed under Article 19 (freedoms of speech, assembly, etc.) are automatically suspended. However, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended. The suspension of other Fundamental Rights can be ordered by the President.
41. The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with:
a) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of the Panchayats.
b) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of the Municipalities.
c) Division of powers between the Union and the States.
d) Languages recognized by the Constitution.
Answer: (a) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of the Panchayats.
Explanation: The Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, specifies the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats, listing 29 subjects.
42. The Twelfth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with:
a) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of the Panchayats.
b) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of the Municipalities.
c) Division of powers between the Union and the States.
d) Anti-defection law.
Answer: (b) Powers, authority, and responsibilities of the Municipalities.
Explanation: The Twelfth Schedule, added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992, specifies the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities, listing 18 subjects.
43. Which of the following principles is considered a cornerstone of Indian democracy and is reflected in various provisions of the Constitution?
a) Parliamentary sovereignty
b) Judicial supremacy
c) Constitutional supremacy
d) Executive dominance
Answer: (c) Constitutional supremacy
Explanation: The Indian Constitution is the supreme law of the land. All laws and actions of the government must conform to its provisions. The judiciary has the power to review and strike down any law that violates the Constitution.
44. The concept of ‘Fundamental Duties’ in the Indian Constitution is primarily intended to:
a) Grant more rights to the citizens.
b) Impose obligations on the citizens towards the nation and society.
c) Limit the powers of the state.
d) Ensure the justiciability of Directive Principles.
Answer: (b) Impose obligations on the citizens towards the nation and society.
Explanation: Fundamental Duties, though non-justiciable, are moral obligations of citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and uphold the unity and integrity of India.
45. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution promotes national integration?
a) Single citizenship
b) Uniform judicial system
c) Common All India Services
d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: Single citizenship fosters a sense of common identity. A uniform judicial system ensures consistent application of laws across the country. Common All India Services (like IAS, IPS) help in maintaining uniformity in administration and coordination between the Centre and the States.
46. The ‘procedure established by law’ as mentioned in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution means that:
a) Any law passed by the legislature is valid.
b) The procedure must be fair, just, and reasonable.
c) The law must be in accordance with the principles of natural justice.
d) The law must have been enacted following the correct legislative process.
Answer: (d) The law must have been enacted following the correct legislative process.
Explanation: Initially, the Supreme Court interpreted ‘procedure established by law’ narrowly, focusing on whether the law was enacted through the correct procedure. However, subsequent judgments, particularly in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, broadened its scope to include the requirement that the procedure must also be fair, just, and reasonable, drawing closer to the ‘due process’ concept.
47. Which of the following is a salient feature of the Indian Constitution that reflects its evolutionary nature?
a) Its rigid and unamendable basic structure.
b) The provision for constitutional amendments.
c) The detailed enumeration of fundamental rights.
d) The clear separation of powers.
Answer: (b) The provision for constitutional amendments.
Explanation: The provision for amending the Constitution under Article 368 allows it to adapt to changing needs and circumstances, making it an evolving document rather than a static one.
48. The concept of ‘judicial activism’ in India is related to:
a) Strict adherence to the letter of the law by the judiciary.
b) The judiciary’s role in policy formulation.
c) The judiciary proactively interpreting the Constitution to address social issues and protect rights.
d) The executive interfering in the functioning of the judiciary.
Answer: (c) The judiciary proactively interpreting the Constitution to address social issues and protect rights.
Explanation: Judicial activism refers to the judiciary taking a more assertive role in interpreting the Constitution and intervening in matters of public interest to ensure justice and uphold constitutional values, sometimes going beyond a strict literal interpretation of the law.
49. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Indian Constitution that contributes to its unique identity?
a) Borrowed provisions from various constitutions.
b) A blend of federalism and unitarism.
c) The inclusion of justiciable Fundamental Rights and non-justiciable Directive Principles.
d) All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.
Explanation: The Indian Constitution’s unique identity stems from its synthesis of various global constitutional ideas, its sui generis federal structure with a strong central bias, and the innovative inclusion of both enforceable rights and guiding principles for governance.
50. The ‘principle of natural justice’ is often invoked in the interpretation of which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution?
a) Article 14 (Equality before law)
b) Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
c) Article 32 (Right to constitutional remedies)
d) All of the above
Answer: (b) Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
Explanation: While the principles of natural justice (like audi alteram partem and nemo judex in causa sua) are fundamental to fair procedure and can be relevant to the interpretation of various articles ensuring fairness, they are most frequently invoked in the context of Article 21, particularly in ensuring that any procedure depriving a person of their life or personal liberty is fair, just, and reasonable.
In this blog post, we bring you a curated set of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) focused on the salient features of the Constitution—each accompanied by clear answers and insightful explanations. Whether you’re preparing for prelims or building a strong conceptual base for mains, these questions will help reinforce key facts and deepen your understanding.