Understanding the concept of Union and its Territory, as outlined in Part I of the Indian Constitution (Articles 1 to 4), is crucial for Polity preparation. This section defines India as a Union of States, explains the legal foundation for the creation of new states, alteration of boundaries, and the role of Parliament in territorial reorganization.
This blog post provides a comprehensive set of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) with answers and detailed explanations, aimed at helping aspirants preparing for UPSC, State PSCs, SSC, CDS, and other government exams. These questions test not just factual knowledge but also conceptual clarity on India’s territorial framework.
Union and its Territory MCQs and Answers
1. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution describes India as:
a) A federation of states
b) A union of states
c) A quasi-federal state
d) A confederation of states
Answer: (b) A union of states
Explanation: Article 1(1) states that “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States,” emphasizing the indissoluble nature of the Indian Union and that the states do not have the right to secede.
2. Which of the following best explains why the term ‘Union’ was preferred over ‘Federation’ in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution?
a) To emphasize the supremacy of the central government.
b) Because the Indian states have the right to secede, unlike in a federation.
c) Because the Indian Union is indestructible, and the states cannot secede due to an agreement.
d) To highlight the historical unity of the Indian subcontinent.
Answer: (c) Because the Indian Union is indestructible, and the states cannot secede due to an agreement.
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar clarified that the term ‘Union’ was used to indicate that the Indian Union was not the result of an agreement between independent units and that the states have no right to secede from it.
3. Article 1(3) of the Indian Constitution specifies that the territory of India shall comprise:
a) Territories of the States only.
b) Territories of the States, Union Territories, and acquired territories.
c) Territories of the States and Union Territories only.
d) Territories that were part of British India only.
Answer: (b) Territories of the States, Union Territories, and acquired territories.
Explanation: Article 1(3) defines the territory of India as comprising the territories of the states, the Union Territories specified in the First Schedule, and such other territories as may be acquired by the Government of India in the future.
4. Which of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of the States and Union Territories and their territorial extent?
a) First Schedule
b) Second Schedule
c) Third Schedule
d) Fourth Schedule
Answer: (a) First Schedule
Explanation: The First Schedule to the Constitution contains the names of the States and Union Territories of India and their respective territorial jurisdictions.
5. Under Article 2 of the Indian Constitution, the power to admit new States into the Union of India or establish new States is vested in:
a) The President of India
b) The Parliament of India
c) The Supreme Court of India
d) The Union Cabinet
Answer: (b) The Parliament of India
Explanation: Article 2 explicitly grants Parliament the power by law to admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
6. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to:
a) Alter the name of a State only.
b) Alter the boundaries of a State only.
c) Form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States.
d) Only admit new States into the Union.
Answer: (c) Form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States.
Explanation: Article 3 provides Parliament with broad powers to form new States, alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States. This can be done by separation of territory, unification of states or parts thereof, or by increasing or diminishing the area of a State.
7. Which of the following conditions is NOT mandatorily required before a Bill for the formation of a new State or alteration of boundaries of existing States is introduced in the Parliament?
a) Recommendation of the President.
b) Prior consultation with the concerned State Legislature.
c) Consent of the majority of the concerned State Legislatures.
d) Introduction only in either House of Parliament.
Answer: (c) Consent of the majority of the concerned State Legislatures.
Explanation: While the President must refer the Bill to the concerned State Legislature(s) for expressing their views, the Parliament is not bound by these views and can proceed with the legislation even if the State Legislature does not give its consent.
8. The power of Parliament under Article 3 to form new States or alter existing States is subject to:
a) A referendum conducted in the affected states.
b) The basic structure of the Constitution.
c) The approval of the Supreme Court.
d) The consent of all the states in the Union.
Answer: (b) The basic structure of the Constitution.
Explanation: Although Article 3 grants significant power to Parliament, this power, like all other legislative powers, is subject to the fundamental principles that form the basic structure of the Constitution, as established by the Supreme Court.
9. Article 4 of the Indian Constitution declares that any law made under Articles 2 and 3 for the admission or establishment of new States or alteration of existing States shall:
a) Require a special majority as per Article 368.
b) Be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
c) Not be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
d) Require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
Answer: (c) Not be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Explanation: Article 4(2) explicitly states that laws made under Articles 2 and 3 shall not be considered as amendments to the Constitution under Article 368, meaning they can be passed by a simple majority in Parliament.
10. The reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis after independence was primarily influenced by the:
a) Recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission.
b) Provisions of the original Constitution.
c) Demands of various regional political parties.
d) Direct intervention of the Supreme Court.
Answer: (a) Recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission.
Explanation: The States Reorganisation Commission, set up in 1953, played a pivotal role in recommending the reorganisation of states based predominantly on linguistic lines, leading to the passage of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
11. Which of the following Union Territories was created as a result of the reorganisation of states in 1956?
a) Chandigarh
b) Delhi
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Lakshadweep
Answer: (d) Lakshadweep
Explanation: The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, led to the creation of several Union Territories, including the Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindivi Islands, which were later renamed Lakshadweep.
12. The state of Telangana was formed by bifurcating which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Maharashtra
Answer: (c) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Telangana was formed on June 2, 2014, by the division of the erstwhile state of Andhra Pradesh, following the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.
13. Which of the following principles was NOT a major consideration during the reorganisation of states in India?
a) Linguistic homogeneity
b) Administrative efficiency
c) Financial viability
d) Religious majority
Answer: (d) Religious majority
Explanation: While linguistic homogeneity was a primary factor, other considerations included administrative convenience, economic viability, geographical contiguity, and the need to promote the welfare of the people. Religious majority was generally not a basis for state reorganisation in India.
14. The power of the Union Government to acquire territories from other countries is an attribute of:
a) Its legislative power under Article 245.
b) Its executive power inherent in sovereignty.
c) The amending power under Article 368.
d) A specific provision under Article 4.
Answer: (b) Its executive power inherent in sovereignty.
Explanation: The acquisition of territory is considered an act of sovereignty and falls under the inherent executive powers of the Union Government. Any subsequent integration of such territory into the Union would be done through legislation under Articles 2 or 3.
15. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the power of Parliament to alter the boundaries of states?
a) Parliament requires the consent of the concerned state legislature by a special majority.
b) Parliament is bound by the views expressed by the concerned state legislature.
c) Parliament can alter the boundaries even without consulting the concerned state legislature.
d) Parliament must refer the bill to the President, who then seeks the views of the concerned state legislature.
Answer: (d) Parliament must refer the bill to the President, who then seeks the views of the concerned state legislature.
Explanation: Before introducing a Bill under Article 3, the President must recommend it and refer it to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views within a specified period. However, Parliament is not bound by these views.
16. The creation of a new State under Article 3 can be initiated by:
a) A resolution passed by the concerned State Legislature.
b) A Bill introduced only in the Lok Sabha with the recommendation of the President.
c) A Bill introduced in either House of Parliament with the recommendation of the President.
d) A joint resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament.
Answer: (c) A Bill introduced in either House of Parliament with the recommendation of the President.
Explanation: A Bill for the formation of a new State or alteration of existing States can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, but only on the recommendation of the President.
17. Which of the following Union Territories has a Legislative Assembly?
a) Lakshadweep
b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
c) Puducherry
d) Chandigarh
Answer: (c) Puducherry
Explanation: As of May 2025, the Union Territories with their own Legislative Assemblies are Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu and Kashmir.
18. The concept of ‘associated states’ was once associated with which of the following states before its full integration into the Union of India?
a) Sikkim
b) Goa
c) Manipur
d) Tripura
Answer: (a) Sikkim
Explanation: Sikkim was initially an ‘associated state’ of India through the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974, before becoming a full-fledged state of the Indian Union through the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975.
19. Which of the following constitutional amendments is related to the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis?
a) First Amendment Act, 1951
b) Seventh Amendment Act, 1956
c) Tenth Amendment Act, 1961
d) Fourteenth Amendment Act, 1962
Answer: (b) Seventh Amendment Act, 1956
Explanation: The Seventh Amendment Act, 1956, gave effect to the reorganisation of states based on the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission and made necessary changes to the First and Fourth Schedules.
20. The power of Parliament to diminish the area of a State under Article 3 includes the power to:
a) Cede Indian territory to a foreign country.
b) Transfer a part of a state to another state within the Union.
c) Merge two or more states into a single state.
d) Declare a part of a state as a Union Territory.
Answer: (b) Transfer a part of a state to another state within the Union.
Explanation: While Article 3 empowers Parliament to diminish the area of a state, the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign country is considered a matter of sovereignty and may require a constitutional amendment under Article 368, as held in the Berubari Union case.
21. Which of the following principles guides the division of powers between the Union and the newly formed states or altered states under Article 3?
a) Principle of absolute equality of all states.
b) Principle of historical continuity of the original states.
c) Principle of administrative convenience and equitable distribution of resources.
d) Principle of linguistic and cultural homogeneity only.
Answer: (c) Principle of administrative convenience and equitable distribution of resources.
Explanation: When forming new states or altering existing ones, Parliament considers factors such as administrative efficiency, economic viability, geographical contiguity, and the need for equitable distribution of resources to ensure the stability and development of the newly configured territories.
22. The names of the Union Territories are listed in which part of the First Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
a) Part I
b) Part II
c) Part III
d) Part IV
Answer: (b) Part II
Explanation: Part I of the First Schedule lists the names of the States and their territories, while Part II lists the names of the Union Territories and their territorial extent.
23. Which of the following was the first state to be formed primarily on a linguistic basis after independence?
a) Tamil Nadu (formerly Madras)
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Maharashtra
Answer: (b) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953 based on the linguistic identity of the Telugu-speaking people, carved out of the Madras Presidency.
24. The power of Parliament to increase the area of a State under Article 3 includes the power to:
a) Incorporate territories acquired from a foreign country into an existing state.
b) Merge a Union Territory with an existing state.
c) Add a part of one state to another state.
d) All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.
Explanation: The power to increase the area of a state is broad and can encompass various scenarios, including adding acquired territories, merging Union Territories, or transferring areas between existing states.
25. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship between Article 2 and Article 3 of the Indian Constitution?
a) Both articles deal with the alteration of existing states.
b) Article 2 deals with the formation of new states from existing territories within India, while Article 3 deals with the admission or establishment of new states from outside India.
c) Article 2 deals with the admission or establishment of new states from outside India, while Article 3 deals with the formation or alteration of existing states within India.
d) Both articles require a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
Answer: (c) Article 2 deals with the admission or establishment of new states from outside India, while Article 3 deals with the formation or alteration of existing states within India.
Explanation: Article 2 pertains to the admission of new states already in existence or the establishment of entirely new states not part of the original territory of India. Article 3 concerns the internal reorganisation of the existing states of the Union.
26. The reference to ‘Bharat’ alongside ‘India’ in Article 1 signifies:
a) The recognition of both traditional and modern names of the country.
b) The linguistic diversity of the nation.
c) The historical significance of the name ‘Bharat’.
d) All of the above.
Answer: (a) The recognition of both traditional and modern names of the country.
Explanation: The inclusion of both names acknowledges the historical and cultural heritage associated with ‘Bharat’ and the more internationally recognized name ‘India’.
27. Which of the following factors typically plays a significant role in the demand for the creation of new states in India?
a) Religious homogeneity
b) Linguistic and cultural identity
c) Economic prosperity of the region
d) Geographical isolation only
Answer: (b) Linguistic and cultural identity
Explanation: Throughout the history of state reorganisation in India, linguistic and cultural identity has been a major driving force behind the demand for separate states, as seen in the formation of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, etc.
28. The power of the Union to create new Union Territories or alter the boundaries of existing Union Territories is derived from:
a) Article 2 only.
b) Article 3 only.
c) The inherent executive power of the Union.
d) The combined effect of Articles 2 and 3, along with the power to administer territories under Article 239.
Answer: (d) The combined effect of Articles 2 and 3, along with the power to administer territories under Article 239.
Explanation: While Articles 2 and 3 primarily focus on states, the creation and alteration of Union Territories are also within the purview of Parliament, often exercised in conjunction with the power to administer these territories under Article 239 and other relevant laws.
29. Which of the following principles was a key recommendation of the Dhar Commission (1948) regarding the reorganisation of states?
a) Language should be the sole basis for reorganisation.
b) Administrative convenience should be the primary consideration.
c) States should be reorganised based on historical boundaries.
d) Financial viability should be the only criterion.
Answer: (b) Administrative convenience should be the primary consideration.
Explanation: The Dhar Commission, appointed to look into the feasibility of linguistic provinces, recommended that the reorganisation of states should be based primarily on administrative convenience, geographical contiguity, economic viability, and the potential for future development, rather than solely on language.
30. The Fazl Ali Commission (States Reorganisation Commission) primarily recommended the reorganisation of states based on:
a) A one-language-one-state formula.
b) Linguistic homogeneity as a major but not the sole factor.
c) Historical and geographical considerations only.
d) The wishes of the princely rulers.
Answer: (b) Linguistic homogeneity as a major but not the sole factor.
Explanation: While acknowledging the importance of language as a unifying factor, the Fazl Ali Commission did not advocate for a strict ‘one-language-one-state’ formula. It emphasized that linguistic homogeneity should be a major consideration, along with other factors like administrative efficiency, economic viability, and national unity.
31. The power of Parliament under Article 3 to alter the name of a State requires:
a) A constitutional amendment under Article 368.
b) A simple majority in both Houses of Parliament after presidential recommendation and consultation with the concerned state legislature.
c) The consent of the concerned State Legislature.
d) A referendum in the concerned State.
Answer: (b) A simple majority in both Houses of Parliament after presidential recommendation and consultation with the concerned state legislature.
Explanation: Changing the name of a State falls under the purview of Article 3 and, as per Article 4, does not require a constitutional amendment under Article 368. It needs a simple majority in Parliament after the President has recommended the Bill and referred it to the concerned State Legislature for its views.
32. Which of the following Union Territories was formed as a result of the division of the state of Punjab?
a) Himachal Pradesh
b) Haryana
c) Chandigarh
d) Delhi
Answer: (c) Chandigarh
Explanation: Following the reorganisation of Punjab in 1966, Chandigarh became a Union Territory and serves as the joint capital of both Punjab and Haryana.
33. The concept of ‘territorial sovereignty’ in the context of Article 1 implies that:
a) States have absolute control over their defined territories.
b) The Union of India has ultimate authority over all its constituent territories.
c) Border disputes between states can only be resolved by the Supreme Court.
d) The President of India is the ultimate custodian of India’s territory.
Answer: (b) The Union of India has ultimate authority over all its constituent territories.
Explanation: While states have defined territorial limits, the overall territorial sovereignty rests with the Union of India, which has the power to alter state boundaries and even form new states.
34. Which of the following is a unique feature of the Indian Union compared to traditional federations?
a) Dual citizenship.
b) Equal representation of states in the upper house of the Parliament.
c) The power of the central government to alter the boundaries of states without their consent.
d) A rigid division of powers between the center and the states.
Answer: (c) The power of the central government to alter the boundaries of states without their consent.
Explanation: In many traditional federations, the boundaries of constituent units cannot be changed without their consent. However, in India, Article 3 grants this power to the Parliament, subject to the procedural requirement of consulting the concerned state legislature.
35. The term ‘State’ as used in Part I of the Constitution (Articles 1-4) includes:
a) Only the states listed in the First Schedule.
b) The states and the Union Territories.
c) Any territory that is part of the Union of India.
d) Only those territories that were provinces under British India.
Answer: (a) Only the states listed in the First Schedule.
Explanation: In the context of the reorganisation and alteration of ‘States’ under Articles 2 and 3, the term generally refers to the states listed in Part I of the First Schedule. Union Territories are usually dealt with under separate provisions and administrative arrangements.
36. Which of the following principles was NOT a guiding factor in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union?
a) Geographical contiguity.
b) Wishes of the people.
c) Strategic importance.
d) Religious affiliation of the ruler.
Answer: (d) Religious affiliation of the ruler.
Explanation: The integration of princely states was primarily based on geographical proximity, the will of the people (often expressed through referendums or popular movements), and strategic considerations. The religion of the ruler was generally not a determining factor.
37. The legal basis for the existence and boundaries of the Union Territories is primarily derived from:
a) Article 1(3) and laws made by Parliament under it.
b) Article 2 and presidential ordinances.
c) Article 3 and resolutions passed by the state legislatures.
d) Article 4 and the Seventh Schedule.
Answer: (a) Article 1(3) and laws made by Parliament under it.
Explanation: Article 1(3) defines the territory of India to include Union Territories specified in the First Schedule, and their governance and boundaries are determined by laws enacted by the Parliament.
38. Which of the following statements is true regarding the application of Article 3 to Union Territories?
a) Article 3 applies to Union Territories in the same manner as it applies to States.
b) Parliament can alter the boundaries or names of Union Territories by ordinary legislation without presidential recommendation.
c) The views of the legislative assemblies of Union Territories with legislatures are mandatory for any changes under Article 3.
d) The process for altering the boundaries or names of Union Territories is generally governed by laws made under Article 3, but the requirement of consulting the legislature (where it exists) may vary.
Answer: (d) The process for altering the boundaries or names of Union Territories is generally governed by laws made under Article 3, but the requirement of consulting the legislature (where it exists) may vary.
Explanation: While the spirit of considering the views of the people applies to Union Territories as well, the formal process under Article 3, which explicitly mentions ‘States’, is adapted through parliamentary laws for Union Territories, and the role of their legislatures (if any) in this process may differ from that of State Legislatures.
39. The concept of ‘irrevocable federalism’ is NOT entirely applicable to India because:
a) States have the power to secede under certain conditions.
b) The central government can unilaterally alter the boundaries and names of states.
c) There is a strict separation of powers between the center and the states.
d) The residuary powers are vested with the states.
Answer: (b) The central government can unilaterally alter the boundaries and names of states.
Explanation: The ability of the Parliament to alter the boundaries and names of states without their consent is a key deviation from the concept of irrevocable federalism, where the constituent units typically have a more permanent and inviolable status.
40. Which of the following was the last major state to be formed in India through bifurcation of an existing state before the creation of Telangana?
a) Chhattisgarh (from Madhya Pradesh)
b) Uttarakhand (from Uttar Pradesh)
c) Jharkhand (from Bihar)
d) All of the above were formed around the same time.
Answer: (d) All of the above were formed around the same time.
Explanation: Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand were all formed in the year 2000 through the bifurcation of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar, respectively.
41. The power of the Union to acquire territories does NOT automatically make those territories part of a State or Union Territory. This requires:
a) A presidential notification.
b) A law passed by Parliament under Article 2 or 3.
c) A resolution passed by the United Nations.
d) A constitutional amendment under Article 368.
Answer: (b) A law passed by Parliament under Article 2 or 3.
Explanation: While the executive can acquire territory, its integration into the Union as a State or Union Territory, with defined boundaries and administrative structures, requires legislative action by the Parliament under Articles 2 or 3.
42. Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be a consideration when Parliament decides to alter the boundaries of a State?
a) The opinion of linguistic minorities within the State.
b) The potential impact on the electoral map of the country.
c) The personal preferences of the ruling political party at the Centre.
d) The need for better governance and administrative efficiency.
Answer: (c) The personal preferences of the ruling political party at the Centre.
Explanation: While political considerations can play a role, the formal and justifiable reasons for altering state boundaries are usually based on factors like administrative efficiency, economic viability, linguistic or cultural identity, and the welfare of the people. Personal preferences of a political party, without broader justification, would be less likely to be the primary driver.
43. The special status granted to certain states under Article 371 and other provisions is an exception to the general principle of:
a) Equality of all states as enshrined in the Preamble.
b) Uniform application of all laws across the territory of India.
c) The Union’s power to alter state boundaries without consent.
d) The division of powers between the Union and the States.
Answer: (b) Uniform application of all laws across the territory of India.
Explanation: Article 371 and similar provisions grant certain states special considerations and allow for the non-uniform application of some laws to protect their specific interests, which is an exception to the general principle of uniform application of laws.
44. The concept of ‘cessation of territory’ of India to a foreign country:
a) Can be done by an ordinary law passed by Parliament under Article 3.
b) Requires a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
c) Can be authorized by a presidential agreement with the foreign country.
d) Falls under the inherent executive powers of the Union.
Answer: (b) Requires a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
Explanation: As established in the Berubari Union case, the cession of Indian territory to a foreign country involves a diminution of the territory of the Union and necessitates an amendment to the Constitution under Article 368.
45. Which of the following schedules of the Constitution would be directly affected by the formation of a new State?
a) Second Schedule
b) Third Schedule
c) First Schedule
d) Fifth Schedule
Answer: (c) First Schedule
Explanation: The First Schedule lists the names and territorial extent of the States and Union Territories. The formation of a new State would necessitate an amendment to this schedule to include the new State and define its territory.
46. The primary objective behind the provisions of Part I of the Constitution (Articles 1-4) is to:
a) Define the fundamental rights of citizens.
b) Establish the structure and powers of the Union Government.
c) Define the territory of India and the process of its formation and alteration.
d) Outline the directive principles of state policy.
Answer: (c) Define the territory of India and the process of its formation and alteration.
Explanation: Part I of the Constitution specifically deals with the name and territory of the Union, the admission or establishment of new States, and the formation or alteration of existing States.
47. Which of the following is NOT a method by which a new State can be formed under Article 3?
a) Separation of territory from any State.
b) Uniting two or more States.
c) Uniting parts of States.
d) A referendum among the residents of the area seeking statehood.
Answer: (d) A referendum among the residents of the area seeking statehood.
Explanation: While the views of the concerned State Legislature are sought, a referendum among the residents is not a mandatory constitutional requirement for the formation of a new State under Article 3. The final decision rests with the Parliament.
48. The power of the Union to establish new States under Article 2 extends to:
a) Only territories that were part of British India.
b) Any territory not currently part of the Union of India.
c) Only territories contiguous to the existing states.
d) Only territories with a similar cultural and linguistic background.
Answer: (b) Any territory not currently part of the Union of India.
Explanation: Article 2 grants Parliament the power to admit or establish new States, which implies territories that were not part of the original Union of India, such as acquired territories.
49. The concept of ‘federal supremacy’ in India is evident in the fact that:
a) States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
b) The Union and the States have clearly demarcated legislative powers.
c) In case of a conflict in the Concurrent List, the Union law prevails.
d) States have the power to legislate on residuary subjects.
Answer: (c) In case of a conflict in the Concurrent List, the Union law prevails.
Explanation: The principle of federal supremacy is reflected in Article 254, which states that if a state law is repugnant to a Union law on a matter enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Union law shall prevail.
50. The provisions of Part I of the Constitution reflect a balance between:
a) The autonomy of the states and the supremacy of the judiciary.
b) The need for national unity and the desire for regional self-determination.
c) The fundamental rights of citizens and the directive principles of state policy.
d) The parliamentary form of government and the federal structure.
Answer: (b) The need for national unity and the desire for regional self-determination.
Explanation: Part I provides the framework for the Indian Union, emphasizing its indestructible nature while also allowing for the reorganisation of states to accommodate regional aspirations based on language, culture, and other factors, thus balancing national unity with regional self-determination.
A solid grasp of the constitutional provisions related to Union and its Territory is essential for any serious aspirant of civil services and other competitive exams. We hope these MCQs and explanations have clarified important concepts and helped reinforce your understanding.
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