In India’s federal structure, Union Territories (UTs) and Special Areas play a unique role in governance and administration. While Union Territories are regions directly governed by the Central Government, Special Areas have specific provisions under the Indian Constitution to address the unique needs of certain regions. Understanding their constitutional framework, administrative setup, and governance structures is essential for UPSC CSE aspirants and candidates preparing for other competitive exams.
In this post, we’ve compiled a set of well-researched Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on Union Territories and Special Areas, focusing on the constitutional provisions, administrative mechanisms, and special status of these regions. Each MCQ is followed by the correct answer and a detailed explanation, helping you gain a deeper understanding of this crucial topic.
Union Territories and Special Areas MCQs and Answers
1. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of Union Territories?
(a) Part VI
(b) Part VII (now repealed)
(c) Part VIII
(d) Part IX
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Part VIII of the Constitution, comprising Articles 239 to 241, lays down the provisions for the administration of Union Territories.
2. Who among the following is the administrative head of a Union Territory?
(a) Governor
(b) Lieutenant Governor or Administrator appointed by the President
(c) Chief Minister (in all UTs)
(d) Chief Secretary
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The President of India appoints a Lieutenant Governor (in some UTs like Delhi, Puducherry, J&K) or an Administrator (in others like Chandigarh, Lakshadweep) to head the administration of a Union Territory. They act as representatives of the Central Government.
3. Which of the following Union Territories has its own elected Legislative Assembly?
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands
- Delhi
- Lakshadweep
- Puducherry
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Currently, only Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir have their own elected Legislative Assemblies and a Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister.
4. The Parliament has the power to make laws for the Union Territories on any matter enumerated in:
(a) The Union List only.
(b) The State List only (with the concurrence of the UT legislature, if any).
(c) Both the Union List and the State List.
(d) The Concurrent List only.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 246(4) grants Parliament the power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a State, which includes Union Territories. This extends to subjects in both the Union and State Lists.
5. The President can make regulations for the peace, progress, and good government of certain Union Territories. Which of the following are included in this provision?
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands
- Chandigarh
- Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
- Lakshadweep
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 240 empowers the President to make regulations for the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (as a merged entity), which have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Chandigarh, Delhi, Puducherry, and J&K are not included as they have legislative assemblies.
6. The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991, conferred special status to which Union Territory?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Puducherry
(c) Delhi
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 69th Amendment inserted Article 239AA, designating the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi and providing for a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers for it.
7. In the NCT of Delhi, in case of a difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and the Council of Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor is required to:
(a) Act on their own discretion.
(b) Refer the matter to the President for a decision and act accordingly.
(c) Seek the opinion of the State High Court.
(d) Convene a joint session of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 239AA(4) stipulates this procedure for resolving differences between the Lieutenant Governor and the elected government of Delhi.
8. Which Article of the Constitution makes special provisions for certain states, often granting them a degree of autonomy or addressing specific needs?
(a) Article 368
(b) Article 370 (now abrogated for J&K)
(c) Articles 371 to 371J
(d) Article 244
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Articles 371 to 371J contain special provisions with respect to several states like Maharashtra and Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Karnataka. These provisions vary for each state.
9. Article 244 of the Constitution deals with:
(a) Administration of Union Territories.
(b) Special provisions for certain states.
(c) Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas.
(d) Formation of autonomous states within a state.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 244(1) applies the provisions of the Fifth Schedule to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Article 244(2) applies the provisions of the Sixth Schedule to the tribal areas in these four northeastern states.
10. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution makes provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in which of the following?
(a) All states of India.
(b) All Union Territories of India.
(c) States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
(d) Only the centrally administered tribal regions.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule’s provisions are applicable to Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in all states except the four northeastern states that are governed by the Sixth Schedule. It can also be extended to any Union Territory.
11. Which of the following criteria is NOT essential for declaring an area as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule?
(a) Preponderance of tribal population.
(b) Compactness and reasonable size of the area.
(c) Economic backwardness of the area.
(d) Having a separate independent judicial system.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The criteria generally considered for declaring an area as a Scheduled Area include a significant tribal population, compactness, reasonable size, underdevelopment, and economic disparity. A separate independent judicial system is not a criterion.
12. The power to declare an area as a Scheduled Area rests with:
(a) The Governor of the concerned state.
(b) The President of India.
(c) The State Legislature.
(d) The Union Parliament.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 244(1) read with the Fifth Schedule empowers the President of India to declare any area as a Scheduled Area. The President can also alter, add to, diminish, or redefine the boundaries of such areas after consultation with the Governor of the state.
13. Which of the following states are covered under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
- Assam
- Meghalaya
- Tripura
- Manipur
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule makes special provisions for the administration of the tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Manipur is not included in this schedule.
14. The tribal areas in the states under the Sixth Schedule are administered as:
(a) Special Economic Zones.
(b) Autonomous States within the State.
(c) Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions.
(d) Centrally Administered Tribal Territories.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule provides for the constitution of Autonomous Districts, and if there are different tribes within an Autonomous District, it can be further divided into Autonomous Regions.
15. Who has the power to organize and reorganize the autonomous districts within a state under the Sixth Schedule?
(a) The President of India.
(b) The Governor of the concerned state.
(c) The Tribal Affairs Ministry of the Union Government.
(d) The respective State Tribal Advisory Council.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Paragraph 1 of the Sixth Schedule empowers the Governor of the state to organize and reorganize the Autonomous Districts, alter their areas, and change their names.
16. Each Autonomous District under the Sixth Schedule has a District Council consisting of not more than how many members?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Paragraph 2 of the Sixth Schedule states that a District Council shall consist of not more than thirty members, of whom not more than four are nominated by the Governor and the rest are elected on the basis of adult suffrage.
17. The elected members of the District Council under the Sixth Schedule hold office for a term of:
(a) Three years.
(b) Four years.
(c) Five years.
(d) Six years.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The elected members of the District Council serve for a term of five years, unless the council is dissolved earlier. Nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
18. The District Councils and Regional Councils under the Sixth Schedule are empowered to make laws with respect to:
- Land, forests, and water resources.
- Village administration and inheritance of property.
- Marriage and divorce, and social customs.
- All subjects in the State and Concurrent Lists.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Paragraph 3 of the Sixth Schedule specifies several subjects on which the Councils can make laws, including land, forests (excluding reserved forests), water resources, village administration, inheritance, marriage, divorce, social customs, etc. They do not have powers over all subjects in the State and Concurrent Lists.
19. All laws made by the District Councils and Regional Councils under the Sixth Schedule require the assent of the:
(a) President of India.
(b) Governor of the concerned state.
(c) Chief Minister of the concerned state.
(d) State Legislature.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Paragraph 3 of the Sixth Schedule clearly states that any law made by the District or Regional Council under this provision shall have no effect until it has received the assent of the Governor.
20. The District Councils under the Sixth Schedule have the power to:
(a) Establish and manage all types of educational institutions.
(b) Establish, construct, or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, etc.
(c) Impose income tax within their jurisdiction.
(d) Conduct elections for the State Legislative Assembly.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Paragraph 3(g) empowers the District Councils to establish, construct, or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, cattle ponds, ferries, fisheries, roads, road transport and waterways in the district.
21. For the trial of suits and cases between Scheduled Tribes within an Autonomous District, the Sixth Schedule provides for the constitution of:
(a) State High Courts.
(b) District Courts established by the State Government.
(c) Village Councils or Courts constituted by the District Councils.
(d) Special Tribunals appointed by the Governor.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Paragraph 4 of the Sixth Schedule allows the District Councils to constitute Village Councils or Courts for the trial of suits and cases between the tribes within their jurisdiction.
22. The jurisdiction of the High Court over suits and cases decided by the Village Councils or Courts in the Sixth Schedule areas is determined by:
(a) The Parliament.
(b) The Chief Justice of the High Court.
(c) The Governor.
(d) The District Council.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Paragraph 4(4) states that the Governor may specify the jurisdiction of the High Court for such suits or cases.
23. The acts of Parliament or the State Legislature do not apply to the Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions under the Sixth Schedule:
(a) Under any circumstances.
(b) Unless directed otherwise by the President.
(c) Unless directed otherwise by the Governor, and with specific modifications or exceptions if so directed.
(d) Only if the District Council passes a resolution against their application.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Paragraph 3(1)(a) and (b) state that the Governor may direct that any particular Act of Parliament or the State Legislature shall not apply to an autonomous district or an autonomous region, or shall apply with such modifications and exceptions as he may specify. For Central Acts in Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, the President can issue such directions.
24. The Governor can appoint a Commission to examine and report on any matter relating to the administration of the Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions under the Sixth Schedule. On the recommendation of this Commission, the Governor can:
(a) Dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.
(b) Dissolve the District or Regional Council.
(c) Transfer powers to the President.
(d) Amend the Sixth Schedule directly.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Paragraph 14 allows the Governor to appoint such a Commission and, based on its report, dissolve a District or Regional Council under certain conditions.
25. Which of the following is a demand often raised concerning the Sixth Schedule by areas not currently under it, like Ladakh?
(a) Greater financial autonomy.
(b) Protection of land rights and cultural identity of tribal populations.
(c) Complete separation from the state.
(d) Representation in the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The primary rationale for demanding inclusion under the Sixth Schedule is to safeguard the land, resources, cultural heritage, and traditional way of life of the tribal communities in those areas.
26. Article 244A of the Constitution makes provision for:
(a) Special provisions for linguistic minorities.
(b) Formation of an autonomous state within the State of Assam comprising certain tribal areas.
(c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in State Legislatures.
(d) Grants-in-aid to tribal welfare schemes.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 244A specifically deals with the creation of an autonomous state within Assam with its own legislature or Council of Ministers or both.
27. Which of the following states has provisions for a Tribal Advisory Council under the Fifth Schedule?
(a) Assam
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Tripura
(d) States having Scheduled Areas
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule mandates the establishment of a Tribal Advisory Council in each State having Scheduled Areas to advise the government on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State.
28. The Bodoland Territorial Council is an autonomous body constituted under the provisions of the:
(a) Fifth Schedule.
(b) Sixth Schedule (in Assam).
(c) Article 244A.
(d) A special Act of Parliament.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Bodoland Territorial Areas District is one of the Autonomous Districts in Assam constituted under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
29. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Delhi – National Capital Territory
(b) Lakshadweep – Administered by a Lieutenant Governor
(c) Puducherry – Has an elected Legislative Assembly
(d) Chandigarh – Common capital of Punjab and Haryana
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Lakshadweep is administered by an Administrator, not a Lieutenant Governor. Lieutenant Governors administer Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir.
30. The primary objective behind the provisions of the Sixth Schedule is to:
(a) Promote economic development in the northeastern states.
(b) Ensure political representation of tribal communities in Parliament.
(c) Safeguard the cultural identity and autonomy of tribal communities in specific northeastern states.
(d) Integrate tribal areas fully into the mainstream administration.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule’s main aim is to provide a degree of self-governance and protect the distinct culture, customs, and traditions of the tribal populations in the specified northeastern states.
31. Which of the following Union Territories was formed as a result of the merger of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu?
(a) Daman, Diu, and Nagar Haveli
(b) Dadra and Daman Union Territory
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
(d) Western Union Territory
Answer: (c)
Explanation: In 2020, the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were merged into a single Union Territory with the same name.
32. The power of the President to make regulations for certain Union Territories under Article 240 is co-extensive with the power of:
(a) The Supreme Court to issue writs.
(b) The Governor to promulgate ordinances.
(c) The Parliament to make laws.
(d) The State Legislature to enact laws for the State.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Regulations made by the President under Article 240 have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament applicable to those Union Territories.
33. Which of the following subjects falls under the legislative powers of the Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule?
(a) Defence and foreign affairs.
(b) Railways and national highways.
(c) Management of forests (other than reserved forests).
(d) Inter-state trade and commerce.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Councils are empowered to make laws regarding the management of forests, excluding those designated as reserved forests by the State or Central Government.
34. The nominated members of the District Council under the Sixth Schedule are nominated by the Governor from:
(a) Representatives of non-tribal communities.
(b) Persons having special knowledge of tribal customs and matters.
(c) Senior bureaucrats of the state government.
(d) Members of the State Legislative Assembly.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: While the Schedule doesn’t explicitly state the criteria for nomination, it is generally understood that the nominated members are individuals who can contribute their expertise and understanding of the tribal areas and their administration.
35. Can the Parliament extend the jurisdiction of the High Court to the Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions under the Sixth Schedule beyond what is specified by the Governor?
(a) Yes, by a special law.
(b) No, the Governor’s specification is final.
(c) Only with the consent of the District Council.
(d) Only after a constitutional amendment.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: While the Governor specifies the initial jurisdiction, the Parliament retains the power to legislate and can extend the High Court’s jurisdiction if deemed necessary.
36. Which of the following is NOT a Union Territory of India?
(a) Daman and Diu
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Tripura
(d) Chandigarh
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Tripura was a Union Territory initially but became a full-fledged state in 1972.
37. The concept of “Excluded Areas” and “Partially Excluded Areas” during the British Raj is a historical precursor to which constitutional arrangement?
(a) The division of powers between the Union and States.
(b) The establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions.
(c) The provisions of the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.
(d) The creation of Union Territories.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: These categories were used to administer tribal-dominated regions differently, and the Fifth and Sixth Schedules carry forward the idea of special administrative arrangements for certain areas with significant tribal populations.
38. The primary source of revenue for the Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule includes:
(a) Income tax collected within their jurisdiction.
(b) Grants-in-aid from the State and Central Governments, and revenue from taxes they are empowered to levy.
(c) Share of the State’s GST collection.
(d) Revenue from national resources located in their areas.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and impose certain specified taxes. They also receive financial support through grants from the state and central governments.
39. In the event of a conflict between a law made by an Autonomous District Council under the Sixth Schedule and a law made by the State Legislature on a matter within the Council’s legislative competence, which law shall prevail?
(a) The law made by the State Legislature.
(b) The law made by the Autonomous District Council.
(c) Whichever law was enacted later.
(d) The matter is decided by the Governor.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Paragraph 3(1) of the Sixth Schedule implies that the laws made by the District Councils on the subjects within their legislative competence are supreme within their territorial jurisdiction, subject to the Governor’s assent.
40. Which of the following Union Territories has a High Court of its own?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Puducherry
(c) Delhi
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Delhi is the only Union Territory that has its own High Court. Other UTs fall under the jurisdiction of the High Courts of neighboring states.
41. The Tribal Advisory Council under the Fifth Schedule is composed of:
(a) Only members nominated by the Governor.
(b) Only elected representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the State Legislature.
(c) Representatives of Scheduled Tribes in the State Legislative Assembly as far as possible, and other members.
(d) Representatives from various tribal NGOs and civil society groups.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Paragraph 4 of the Fifth Schedule states that the Tribal Advisory Council shall consist of as many representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State as may be deemed fit and other members not exceeding one-third of the number of such representatives.
42. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are administered by a/an:
(a) Lieutenant Governor.
(b) Administrator.
(c) Chief Commissioner.
(d) Governor.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The administrative head of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is designated as the Lieutenant Governor.
43. The UT of Lakshadweep falls under the jurisdiction of which High Court?
(a) Madras High Court
(b) Kerala High Court
(c) Karnataka High Court
(d) Bombay High Court
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Lakshadweep Islands fall under the jurisdiction of the High Court of Kerala, located in Kochi.
44. The UT of Chandigarh falls under the jurisdiction of which High Court?
(a) Delhi High Court
(b) Punjab and Haryana High Court
(c) Himachal Pradesh High Court
(d) Rajasthan High Court
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Chandigarh, being the common capital of Punjab and Haryana, falls under the jurisdiction of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
45. The UT of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu falls under the jurisdiction of which High Court?
(a) Gujarat High Court
(b) Bombay High Court
(c) Madhya Pradesh High Court
(d) Andhra Pradesh High Court
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The merged Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu falls under the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court.
46. The primary reason for granting special status and establishing autonomous structures in certain areas is to:
(a) Promote rapid industrialization.
(b) Ensure uniformity of administration across the country.
(c) Accommodate the distinct socio-cultural identities and protect the interests of specific communities.
(d) Facilitate better integration with neighboring countries.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The special provisions and autonomous structures are primarily designed to respect and protect the unique cultural heritage, traditional practices, and socio-economic interests of the indigenous populations in those regions.
47. Which of the following schedules of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories? 1
(a) Fourth Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Sixth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to each State and Union Territory.
48. The concept of “Inner Line Permit” prevalent in some northeastern states is related to the administration of:
(a) Union Territories.
(b) Areas under the Fifth Schedule.
(c) Areas outside the purview of both the Fifth and Sixth Schedules but with significant tribal populations.
(d) International border areas.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: While the Sixth Schedule provides for autonomous administration, the Inner Line Permit system is a separate regulatory mechanism enforced by the state governments in some northeastern states (like Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram) to protect the interests of the indigenous populations and regulate the entry of outsiders. Some of these states also have areas under the Sixth Schedule.
49. The demand for extending the Sixth Schedule to areas like Ladakh is primarily based on the need to protect:
(a) The strategic importance of the region.
(b) The religious rights of minority communities.
(c) The land, culture, and unique identity of the tribal (predominantly Buddhist) population.
(d) The region’s potential for tourism development.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The demand stems from the desire of the local population to safeguard their distinct cultural heritage, traditional way of life, and land rights in the face of increasing external influences and developmental pressures.
50. The administration of justice in the Autonomous Districts under the Sixth Schedule, through the Village Councils and Courts, reflects a form of:
(a) Uniform Civil Code.
(b) Traditional justice system.
(c) Parallel judicial structure under the High Court.
(d) Subordination to the Panchayat system.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule allows for the continuation and adaptation of the traditional justice systems prevalent among the tribal communities, administered through their own councils and courts, within the overall framework of the Indian Constitution and the state’s legal system.
A strong grasp of the constitutional provisions governing Union Territories and Special Areas is essential for answering questions related to Indian polity in exams like the UPSC CSE. With continuous practice and a solid understanding of these regions’ unique administrative structures, you can confidently approach any related question in the exam.
We hope this collection of MCQs and their explanations has enriched your preparation. Keep revising regularly and ensure you stay updated with the dynamic governance and administrative practices of these regions.